TNPSC 2005 – QUESTION PAPER PART 1

1. Longest telomeres are found in which cells?
a. Nerve cell
b. Retinal cell
c. Sperms
d. Skeletal muscle cell

2. Conjugated Hyper-bilirubinemia is found in the following conditions, except
a. Dubin- Johnson syndrome
b. Criggler – Najjar syndrome
c. Rotor Syndrome
d. Gilbert syndrome

3. Virchow’s Node is located in the
a. Axilla
b. Mediastinum
c. Left Supraclavicular region
d. Sub-mandibular region

4. Carcinoma Prostate is characterized by the following, except
a. androgen receptors
b. osteolytic secondaries
c. perineural invasion
d. single layer of cells

5. AIDS virus belongs to
a. Lassa virus
b. Lentic virus
c. Pox virus
d. Myxo virus

6. The commonest site of Tuberculosis in the GIT is
a. Stomach
b. Jejunum
c. Ileo-cecal region
d. Colon

7. The histological type of Bronchogenic carcinoma in smokers is
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Small cell carcinoma
c. Adenocarcinoma
d. Undifferentiated carcinoma

8. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
a. Urothelial carcinoma - Transitional cells
b. Renal cell carcinoma - Blastemal cells
c. Nephroblastoma - Eosinophilic cells
d. Oncocytoma - Clear cells

9. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
a. X-linked recessive disorder – Glycogen storage disease
b. Autosomal dominant disorder - Hemophilia A
c. Autosomal recessive disorder – Sickle cell anemia
d. Metabolic disorder – Hereditary spherocytosis

10. The sequence of events in Carcinogenesis is
a. Mutation in the genome, DNA damage,
Malignant neoplasm, Expression of altered gene products.
b. Mutation in the Genome, DNA damage, Expression of the altered gene products,
Malignant neoplasm
c. DNA damage, Expression of the altered gene products, Mutation in the Genome,
Malignant neoplasm
d. DNA damage, Mutation in the genome, Expression of the altered gene products,
Malignant neoplasm.

11. In Hemoglobin degradation, the first bile pigment formed is
a. Bilirubin b. Biliverdin
c. Bile acids d. Cholic acids

12. In Hepatic Jaundice with cholestasis,
urine contains
a. high levels of conjugated bilirubin and urobilinogen
b. high leves of conjugated bilirubin and negligible urobilinogen
c. high levels of unconjugated bilirubin and urobilinogen
d. high levels of unconjugated bilirubin and negligible urobilinogen.

13. Following are the examples of Unconjugated Hyperbilirubinemia except
a. Gilbert syndrome
b. Dubin – Johnson syndrome
c. Crigler – Najjar syndrome
d. Lucey – Driscoll syndrome

14. The Chloride Shift involves
a. K+ accompanying each bicarbonate that leaves the erythrocyte
b. Carbonic acid leaving the erythrocyte
c. Bicarbonate leaving the erythrocyte in exchange for chloride
d. Protons leaving the erythrocyte for each Co2 that enters

15. A patient with PCo2 of 60 mm Hg and
Plasma Bicarbonate of 25 mEq/L, is likely to have
a. Acute metabolic acidosis
b. Acute respiratory acidosis
c. Compensated respiratory acidosis
d. Chronic metabolic acidosis

16. Most circulating T3 and T4 are bound to
a. Thyroxine binding pre-albumin
b. Thryroxine binding globulin
c. Gamma globulin
d. Thyroglobulin

17. In patients with primary hypothyroidism, which of the following laboratory tests
will be useful?
a. Estimation of T3
b. Estimation of T4
c. Estimation of TBG
d. Detection of auto – antibodies..

18. Which of the following is required for crystallization and storage of the
hormone Insulin?
a. Mn b. Mg
c. Ca d. Zn

19. Which of the following substances is present in high concentration in the urine
of patients with Pheochromocytoma?
a. Epinephrine
b. Dopamine
c. Nor – epinephrine
d. 3 – methoxy – 4 –OH Mandelic acid.

20. Secondary Hypogonadism is due to
a. Pituitary gonadotropin deficiency
b. Pituitary corticotrophin deficiency
c. Testicular deficiency
d. Ovarian deficiency

21. Precursor of Testosterone is
a. Methyl testosterone
b. Pregnenalone
c. Aldosterone
d. Cortisone

22. The principal steroid secreted by the Fetal Adrenal cortex is
a. Progesterone
b. Dehydro EPI androsterone
c. Cotocosterone
d. Pregnenalone

23. Pneumothorax causes the following,except
a. Reduced vital capacity
b. Abnormal dullness to percussion on the affected side
c. Reduction in residual volume
d. Increased resonance on percussion on affected side

24. Constriction of bronchial smooth muscle can result from the following except
a. Irritation of bronchial mucosa
b. Cold stimulus to bronchial mucosa
c. Stimulation of local beta adreno – receptors
d. A decrease in PCo2 in bronchial air

25. PR interval in electrocardiogram denotes
a. beginning of atrial depolarization to end of
ventricular depolarization
b. beginning of atrial depolarization to beginning of ventricular depolarization
c. end of atrial depolarization to beginning of ventricular depolarization
d. end of atrial depolarization to end of ventricular depolarization

26. Work output of left ventricle is
a. 5 times more that of right
b. same as that of right
c. less than that of right
d. 20 times more than that of right

27. Positive Chronotropic effect means
a. increase in heart rate
b. increase in conductivity
c. increase in force of contraction
d. increase in excitability

28. Red colour – blindness is called
a. Deuteranopia b. Protanopia
c. Protanomaly d. Deuteranomaly

29. During Deep sleep there is a fall in
a. Hand skin temperature
b. Arterial Co2
c. Blood growth hormone/cortisol ratio
d. Metabolic rate

30. In Brown – Sequard syndrome , below the level of lesion, on the same side
a. loss of fine touch
b. loss of vibration sense
c. loss of stereognosis
d. all of these

31. The following are adverse reactions of nitrates, except
a. Headache b. Postural hypotension
c. Tolerance d. Bradycardia

32. The following agents are used in Acute Myocardial Infarction, except
a. Fibrinolytics b. Aspirin
c. Anti – fibrinolytics d. Heparin

33. The appropriate drug for Cardiogenic Shock is
a. Adrenaline b. Dopamine
c. Isoprenaline d. Nor – adrenaline

34. The most suitable tetracycline for use in a patient with impaired renal function is
a. Chlortetracycline b. Democlocycline
c. Oxytetracycline d. Doxycycline

35. The drug which does not possess H2 anti- histamine receptor antagonistic
action is
a. Cimetidine b. Ranitidine
c. Nizatidine d. Loratidine

36. Which of the following hypolipidemic agents causes constipation and
bloating?
a. Colestipol b. Cholestyramine
c. Both (a) and (b) d. none of these

37. The anti- asthma drug which cannot be administered by inhalation is
a. Theophylline b. Ipratropium bromide
c. Budesonide d. Terbutaline

38. Co – trimoxazole is a combination of
a. pyrimethamine and sulfadoxine
b. Trimethoprim and Sufixozaloe
c. Trimethoprim and sulfaphenazole
d. Trimethoprim and Sufamethoxazole

39. The drug used in prophylaxis of Rheumatic fever is
a. Procaine pencillin
b. Benzyl pencillin
c. Benzathine pencillin
d. Cloxacillin

40. The drug used for extra-pyramidal reaction to Chlorpromazine is
a. Physostigmine
b. Diphenhydramine
c. Propranolol
d. Metaclopropamide

41. Which one of the following muscles emerges through the two slips of Flexor Retinaculum?
a. Flexor carpi radialis
b. Flexor pollicis longus
c. Abductor pollicis longus
d. Flexor carpi ulnaris
.
42. The sensory nerve given off by the Axillary nerve is
a. Upper lateral cutaneous nerve of arm
b. Lower lateral cutaneous nerve of arm
c. Posterior cutaneous nerve of arm
d. Posterior cutaneous nerve of forearm

43. Unlocking of the knee joint to permit the flexion is caused by which muscle
a. Vastus medialis b. Biceps femoris
c. Popliteus d. Gatrocnemius

44. The nerve that supplies the skin over the
adjacent sides of big toe and second toe
is
a. sural b. Saphenous
c. Deep peroneal d. Superificial peroneal

45. The following is a branch of the fourth part of Vertebral artery?
a. Anterior inferior cerebellar artery
b. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
c. Pontine branches
d. Basilar artery

46. Palatine tonsil is developed from
a. First pharyngeal pouch
b. Second pharyngeal pouch
c. Tubotympanic recess
d. Third pharyngeal pouch

47. One of the following muscle is not a muscle of mastication
a. Temporalis b. Masseter
c. Buccinator d. Lateral pterygoid

48. Impulse flow towards a nerve cell occurs through
a. Dendrite b. Axon
c. Neuroglia d. none of these

49. Broca’s area is localized in
a. Superior temporal gyrus
b. Parietal lobe
c. Inferior frontal gyrus
d. Para-central lobule

50. The following structures cross in front of the vertebral column , except
a. Thoracic duct
b. Accesory Hemi – azygos vein
c. H emiazygos vein
d. Left superior intercostal vein

51. The commonest lump in the breast of a young female is
a. Fibrocystic disease
b. Fibroadenoma
c. Early breast cancer
d. Phylloides tumor

52. Traction injury to epiphysis of the vertebra is called
a. Osgood Schlatters disease
b. Kohlers disease
c. Severs disease
d. Scheurmanns disease

53. Trigger thumb is
a. Stenosing Tenosynovitis of Flexor Pollicis Longus
b. S tenosing Tenosynovitis of Abd. Pol. Longus and Ext. Pol. Brevis
c. Tenosynovitis of Abductor Pollicis
d. Tenosynovitis of Lumbircals and Interossei

54. The most common infection of hand is
a. Acute paronychia
b. Chronic paronychia
c. Terminal pulp space infection
d. Web space infection

55. The common cause of Tennis Elbow is
a. Bursitis
b. Enthesopathy at the region
c. Radial head ostephyte
d. Entrapment of posterior interosseous nerve

56. Most common complication of Clavicular fracture is
a. Malunion
b. Non – union
c. Injury to brachial plexus
d. Shoulder stiffness

57. Maximum tourniquet time for upper limb is
a. ½ hour b. 1 hour
c. 1 ½ hour d. 2 hours

58. The following malignancies are common in AIDS, except
a. Kaposi sarcoma
b. Burkitts lymphoma
c. Primary CNS lymphoma
d. Ca – colon

59. Partial thickness burn is characterized by all of the following except
a. becomes full thickness later
b. rarely causes severe physiological derangement
c. heals without grafting
d. moist and blistered

60. Necrotising Fascitis is caused by all the following organisms , except
a. Coliforms
b. Staphylococci
c. Bacteriodes
d. Clostridia

61. Kehr’s sign is positive in
a. Splenic rupture
b. Rupture of distended Gall bladder
c. Hepatic injury
d. Preforation of peptic ulcer

62. Lignocaine toxicity includes
a. Convulsions
b. Asystole
c. Methemoglobinemia
d. All of these

63. Mycosis fungoides is
a. Cutaneous lymphoma
b. Deep dermal fungal infection
c. Cutaneous tuberculosis infection
d. Skin eruptions due to rubella viruses

64. Common variety of piles is
a. Internal b. External
c. Internal – External d. none of these

65. Rectal strictures are more commonly seen with
a. Carcinoma Rectum b. Syphilis
c. Chancroid d. LGV

66. The following are true about Idiopathic Hypertrophic Aortic Stenosis, except
a. Autosomal dominant with complete penetrance
b. Sudden death
c. Associated Mitral Regurgitation
d. Verapamil ameliorate symptoms

67. Shrinking Lung syndrome is seen in
a. Systemic Lupus Erythematosis
b. Systemic Sclerosis
c. Poliomyelitis
d. Tuberculosis

68. All are autosomal dominant disorders except
a. Tuberous Sclerosis b. Polyposis coli
c. Cystic fibrosis d. Myotonia dystonia

69. cANCA is most commonly associated with
a. Wegeners Granulomatosis
b. Idiopathic Cresentric GN
c. Diffuse Glomerulosclerosis
d. none of these

70. Which of the following is not associated with Tetany?
a. Chvosteks sign b. Trousseau sign
c. Cole’s sign d. Erb’s sign

71. Regularly irregular pulse occurs in
a. Sinus arrhythmias
b. II degree heart block
c. Multifocal extra-systoles
d. none of these

72. Pleural effusion protein analysis less
than 2 gms occurs in
a. Meigs syndrome b. Pulmonary infarction
c. Malignancy d. Pneumonia

73. Beta blockers are contra-indicated in hypertension management when
associated with
a. Congestive heart failure b. Renal failure
c. Liver failure d. all of these

74. Palmar Erythema is associated with
a. Thyrotoxicosis b. Pregnancy
c. Liver disorders d. All of them

75. All are true of Impotence, except
a. In India, Psychogenic causes are rare
b. Diabetes impotence is common
c. It occurs as the side effect of drug therapy of hypertension
d. Papaverine improves the condition in some.

76.The initial treatment for pre-eclampsia consists of
a. Modified bed rest b. Salt restricted diet
c. Anti-hypertensives d. Sedatives.

77. Which of the following factors is most important in stimulating fetal growth?
a. Insulin b. Growth hormone
c. Cortisol d. Human placental lactogen

78. Wound infections observed within the first 2 days after Caesarean delivery are
usually caused by
a. Streptococci b. Clostridia
c. Staphylococci d. Bacteroides.

79. Maternal convulsions have been associated with which of the following
fetal heart rate patterns?
a. Early decelerations
b. Variable decelerations
c. Prolonged decelerations
d. Accelerations

80. The Marshall – Marchetti Krantz operation is a procedure done to correct
a. Chronic retention of urine
b. stress incontinence
c. urge incontinence
d. vesico-vaginal fistula

81. The following are diseases for which extended sickness benefit is payable for
309 days under the ESI act, except
a. Hemiplegia b. Hemolytic anemia
c. Chronic renal failure d. Tuberculosis

82. The following are the complications of Measles, except
a. Orchitis b. Diarrhea
c. Pneumonia d. Otitis media

83. Presumptive treatment for Malaria is given to
a. persons who travel to malaria endemic area
b. all fever cases
c. fever cases showing typical symptoms of malaria
d. persons who are positive for malarial parasites

84. Which of the following statements about the characteristics of Tardive Dyskinesia
is true?
a. It is more common in men than women
b. It includes abnormal movements of tongue
c. It occurs more often in treatment using Clozepin than other Antipsychotics
d. It usually occurs within 3 months of beginning of drug treatment.

85. Conventional anti-psychotics can cause
a. hyper-prolactinemia
b. Gynacomastia
c. Sexual dysfunction
d. All of these

86. All of the following may be effective in treating ADHD, except
a. Methyl phenydate hydrochlorine
b. chlorpromazine
c. Phenobarbitone
d. Dextro-amphetamine sulphate

87. Oral Rehydrating Salt contains
a. 15gm/litre of Glucose
b. 20gm/litre of Glucose
c. 25gm/litre of Glucose
d. 30gm/litre of Glucose.

88. What is the commonest organism
responsible for neonatal meningitis?
a. Hemophilus influenza b. E.coli
c. Meningococci d. none of these

89. Cholera is characterized by all , except
a. Effortless vomiting
b. Painful watery (Rice water) stools
c. Hypotension
d. Acute renal failure

90. In a patient with fever for 4 days, typhoid can be confirmed by
a. Positive WIDAL b. Positive blood culture
c. Leucocytosis d. Raised ESR.

91. Great Cardiac Vein lies in
a. Anterior inter-ventricular groove
b. Posterior inter-ventricular groove
c. Anterior atrio - ventricular groove
d. Posterior atrio-ventricular groove

92. The attachments of structure at the superior surface of Anterior
intercondylar area of tibia from before backwards are
a. Anterior horn of medial meniscus, anterior cruciate ligament, anterior horn of lateral
meniscus.
b. anterior horn of lateral meniscus, , anterior cruciate ligament, Anterior horn of
medial meniscus.
c. anterior cruciate ligament, Anterior horn of medial meniscus, anterior horn of lateral
meniscus.
d. anterior cruciate ligament, anterior horn of lateral meniscus, Anterior horn of medial
meniscus.

93. All of the following structures pass deep in the flexor retinaculum of hand, except
a. Tendons of flexor digitorum superficialis
b. Tendons of Flexor digitorum profundus
c. Tendon of Flexor pollcis longus
d. Tendon of the Flexor carpi ulnaris.

94. Rotator cuff is formed by the tendons of
a. Supraspinatus – Rhomboideus minor – Subscapularis – Infraspinatus
b. Supraspinatus – Infraspinatus – Teres major – Teres minor
c. Supraspinatus – Infraspinatus – Teres minor – Subscapularis
d. Infraspinatus – Subscapularis – Teres minor – Pectoralis minor.

95. Wrist drop is the result of injury to
a. Median nerve
b. Ulnar nerve
c. Musculo-cutaneous nerve
d. Radial nerve

96. Both dermal and epidermal Melanoblasts are formed from
a. General body ectoderm
b. Ectodermal placode
c. Neural plate
d. Neural crest

97. Which one of the following diseases is not X- linked recessive?
a. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
b. Christmas disease
c. Hemophilia
d. Marfans syndrome
98. The trigone of the urinary bladder is developed from
a. Vesicourethral canal
b. Mesonephric duct
c. Para-mesonephric duct
d. Allantoic diverticulum.

99. Which of the following is correctly matched?
a. Duodenum – Large intestine
b. Jejunum – Valve of Kerkring
c. Ileum – Brunners Gland
d. Appendix – Peyers patch.

100. The structure that lies anterior to the
 rectus abdominis above the costal margin is
a. Costal cartilages
b. Internal oblique aponeurosis
c. Transvers abdominis aponeurosis
d. External oblique aponeurosis.

TNPSC GROUP 2 2007 question paper part4

151. Fill in the blank with gerund :

It is wise ....................................... new ideas.

A. to accept C. to be accepted

B. accepting D. accept

152. Fill in the blank with gerund :

It is our aim ................... the status of women.

A. raising C. to raisen

B. to be raised D. to raising

153. Change the following Noun into Verb form ‘acquisition’

A. acquisitive

B. acquisitiveness

C. acquire

D. none of these

154. Change the following Verb into Noun form :

‘apply’

A. applied C. apply for

B. applicable D. application

155. Select the correct question tag:

He can't speak English fluently.............?

A.Will he? C. Can he?

B. Does he? D. Did he?

156. Select the correct question tag:

I am right...................?

A. Aren't I? C. Have I?

B. Can I? D. Haven't?

157. Select the correct question tag:

Let's go to the beach .................?

A. Shall we? C. Haven't you?

B. Will you? D. Do you?

158. Select the correct question tag:

He has left already..............?

A. Hasn't he? C. Will he?

B. Doesn't he? D.Won't he?

159. Select the correct question tag:

He doesn't like tea ..............?

A. Does he? C. Will he?

B. Did he? D. Do he?

160. Select the correct question tag:

You didn't notice him ..............?

A. Don't you? C. Can you?

B. Did you? D.Will you?

161. Find out the error :

I have some book on Physics 1 2 3 4

A. 3 C. 4

B. 2 D. 1

162. Identify the Imperative sentence:

A. She has completed it

B. How tall the building is?

C. Bring me the red file at once.

D. Can you come with me?

163. Identify the Interrogative sentence:

A. Where are you coming from?

B. He is a doctor

C. She wants to become a lawyer

D. What a lovely sight!

164. Identify the Passive voice :

A. He writes a story

B. My uncle presented my sister a bangle

C. Let the door be opened

D. Raja was playing football

165. Identify the Present Perfect Continuous Tense :

A. I like to dance

B. She is writing a letter now

C. Mohan is working in this office

D. Kamala has been serving in this

institution since 1985

166. Identify the Passive voice :

A. Let the patients not be disturbed

B. Rahim is a lawyer

C. He goes to Mumbai

D. Rani and Vimala are playing chess

167. Fill in the blank with the suitable

infinitive :

................. the mountain is dangerous.

A. To be climbed

B. To climbing

C. To climb

D. none of these

168. Fill in the blank with the suitable infinitive :

I was happy ................. the news.

A. to hearing C. heard

B. to be heard D. to hear

169. Fill in the blank with the suitable infinitive :

The children are anxious ..........

A. to learn

B. to be learnt

C. to learning

D. to have been learnt

170. Fill in the blank with gerund :

................. too many sweets is bad for health.

A. To eating

B. To be eaten

C. Ate

D. Eating

171. Identify the complex sentence:

A. On hearing be bell, the boys stood up.

B. When the boys heard the bell, they stood up.

C. The boys heard the bell and they stood up.

D.We stood up on hearing the bell.

172. Identify the simple sentence :

A. Besides making a promise, she kept it.

B. Come here now or you cannot meet him.

C. Lalita was very weak but she walked to her office.

D. She heard the news and at once she began to cry.

173. Identify the simple sentence :

A. He is too weak to walk.

B. As Mary was rich she enjoyed all luxuries.

C. He saves some money and so he can buy a car.

D. The problem was very difficult and so I cannot solve it.

174. Identify the complex sentence :

A. I saw a building which was beautiful.

B. He was too foolish to follow me.

C. She obeys her husband's orders.

D. I do not know about his arrival.

175. Identify the odd word :

A. diplomat

B. statesman

C. ambassador

D. farmer

176. Find out the error :

I were received by the officers 1 2 3 at the airport 4

A. 4 C. 1

B. 2 D. 3

177. Find out the error :

The thief have been brought 1 3 to Chennai by van 3 4

A. 2 C. 4

B. 1 D. 3

178. Find out the error :

I does not know the answer 1 2 3 4

A. 3 C. 2

B. 1 D. 4

179. Find out the error :

He is going to college on bus 1 2 3 4

A. 3 C. 4

B. 2 D. 1

180. Find out the error :

Ramayana is a holy book 1 2 3 4

A. 4 C. 2

B. 3 D. 1

181. Identify the sentence pattern :

Raju presented me a dictionary.

A. SVO C. S.V.IO.DO

B. SVOA D. SVOC

182. Identify the sentence pattern :

They named him Diyana.

A. S.V.O.A C. A.S.V.C

B. S.V.O.C D. S.V.IO.DO

183. Identify the sentence pattern :

The children like sweets.

A. S.V.C

B. S.V.O

C. A.S.V.C

D. S.V.O.C

184. Identify the sentence pattern :

I met my uncle at the railway station.

A. S.V.O

B. S.V.O.A

C. S.V.O.C

D. S.V.IO.DO

185. Which of the following sentences

does not belong to the degrees of

comparison?

A. No other boy is as active as Raja.

B. Rani is the most obedient girl.

C. Have you finished your work?

D. Peacock is one of the most beautiful birds.

186. Identify the superlative degree.

A. The gold is one of the costliest metals.

B. Very few flowers are as beautiful as lotus.

C. Rohini is not older than Krishna.

D. No other boy is so tall as Kumar.

187. Identify the degree :

Gopi was not so clever as Raghu.

A. Comparative degree

B. Superlative degree

C. Positive degree

D. None of these

188. Identify the correct degree :

No other leader was as famous as Gandhiji.

A. Superlative degree

B. Comparative degree

C. Positive degree

D. None of these

189. Identify the correct degree:

Asoka is more famous than Babur.

A. Positive degree

B. Comparative degree

C. Superlative degree

D. None of these

190. Identify the compound sentence:

A. It is very cheap, but it is durable.

B. If you work hard, you will get a prize.

C. Although it is very cheap, it is durable.

D. People living in luxury, know nothing about poverty.

191. Fill in the blank with article :

............... palm tree is generally very tall.

A. The C. An

B. A D. No article

192. Fill in the blank with suitable article:

Her husband is ............. shrewd person.

A. the C. some

B. an D. a

193. Fill in the blank with suitable

article:

Germany is ........... European country.

A. a C. the

B. an D. no article

194. Fill in the blank with suitable article:

Ramu is ............. engineer.

A. the C. a

B. an D. few

195. Fill in the blank with suitable

article:

The child is eating ............. apple.

A. a C. none

B. the D. an

196. Fill in the blank with suitable preposition :

He has been trying ............. finish the work.

A. to C. in

B. by D. with

197. Fill in the blank with suitable preposition :

The mango was cut ............. my brother.

A. to C. by

B. with D. at

198. Fill in the blank with suitable preposition :

My house is ............. a lake.

A. by C. beside

B. at D. under

199. Fill in the blank with suitable preposition :

He was waiting ............. the bus.

A. for C. with

B. to D. by

200. Fill in the blank with suitable preposition :

He will come ............. Sunday.

A. on C. in

B. at D. by

TNPSC GROUP 2 2007 question paper part3

101. Find out the error :

As she is sick she walks slow

1 2 3 4

A. 1 C. 4

B. 2 D. 3

102. Adjective of ‘trouble’ is

A. trouble C. troublesome

B. troubled D. none of these

103. Find out the adverb

A. quickly C. hard

B. fresh D. just

104. Adjective of ‘space’ is

A. spacious C. spouse

B. specific D. spice

105. Find out the odd word :

A. funnily C. gamely

B. funkily D. gainful

106. Find out the odd word :

A. interview C. interviewer

B. interviewee D. intimate

107. Read the following passage :

Like South Indians, the Japanese are rice-eaters. They are particular about not leaving a single grain of rice in the plate at the end of the meal. They never waste anything. ................. never waste anything.

A. Romans C. Americans

B. Indians D. Japanese

108. Read the following passage :

The world is compared to a great machinery. Every man is like a wheel which, however tiny it maybe, is essential for the running of the machinery, which is to provide for the hundreds of millions of people.

What is the world compared to?

A. The world is compared to a computer.

B. The world is compared to a workshop.

C. The world is compared to a machinery.

D. The world is compared to a mechanic.

109. Read the following passage :

Insects are small creatures having six legs, no backbone and body divided into three parts. They are the most plentiful of all living creatures. From man's point of view, insects can be divided into two kinds. ............... are the most plentiful of living creatures.

A. Reptiles

B. Herbivores

C. Insects

D. None

110. Read the following passage :

Lencho wrote a letter to God. The postmaster and the postman laughed at this. But the postmaster admired his faith. He did not want him to be disappointed. He gathered some money and sent him under the signature, ‘God’,

Who had sent the money?

A. Lencho

B. Postmaster

C. Postman

D. Lencho's brother

111. Fill in the blank with the correct tense Malini and Susheela _____ (prepare) for the exams now.

A. are preparing

B. were preparing

C. is preparing

D. have prepared

112. Plural form of ‘negro’ is

A. negro C. neglects

B. negroes D. none of these

113. Plural form of ‘species’ is

A. species C. spice

B. spices D. none of these

114. Plural form of ‘two’ is

A. two C. toes

B. twos D. none of these

115. Plural form of ‘medium’ is

A. media C. medicos

B. medium D. none of these

116. Select the past participle of ‘stand’:

A. stood

B. was standing

C. is standing

D. none of these

117. Find out the error :

It was a prettiest bird

1 2 3 4

A. 3 C. 1

B. 2 D. 4

118. Find out the error :

We can see the stars in a sky

1 2 3 4

A. 3 C. 1

B. 2 D. 4

119. Find out the error :

He was a nobler man

1 2 3 4

A. 2 C. 4

B. 1 D. 3

120. Find out the error :

He climbed at the tree

1 2 3 4

A. 4 C. 1

B. 2 D. 3

121. Choose the correct antonym :

Ravishankar had done a heroic deed.

A. courageous C. timid

B. brave D. difficult

122. Find out the word with a prefix:

A. income C. grateful

B. save D. strengthen

123. Find out the word with a prefix:

A. hill C. roughly

B. submarine D. growth

124. Find out the word with a prefix:

A. shortage C. brave

B. malpractice D. smooth

125. Find out the word with a suffix:

A. otherwise C. beside

B. quick D. hold

126. Find out the word with a suffix:

A. inland C. worth

B. lead D. golden

127. Find out the word with a suffix:

A. asleep C. punishment

B. cruel D. free

128. Select the future continuous tense :

A. shall come

B. shall have been coming

C. is coming

D. shall be coming

129. Select the simple present tense:

A. I am going to the hospital.

B. They were listening to the teacher.

C. Empty vessels make much noise.

D. none of these.

130. Fill in the blank with the correct tense.

I ............. (finish) my work by this time next month.

A. will be finished

B. am finished

C. will have finished

D. will be finishing

131. Choose the correct synonym :

He taught the students to cultivate their minds.

A. teach C. develop

B. trained D. change

132. Choose the correct synonym :

Mother Teresa's eyes lit up with her usual kind smile.

A. cruel C. warm

B. sad D. style

133. Choose the correct synonym :

Some birds will fly away when the weather turns cold:

A. sky C. report

B. climate D. reason

134. Choose the correct synonym :

Suddenly Rani heard the sound of water trickling.

A. pouring C. crawling

B. dripping D. gushing

135. Choose the correct synonym :

The roads should be repaired immediately.

A. at once C. slowly

B. belatedly D. hastily

136. Choose the correct synonym :

The policeman unlocked the cell.

A. opened C. widened

B. closed D. repaired

137. Choose the correct antonym :

They understood the weakness of their enemy.

A. powers C. boldness

B. arms D. strength

138. Choose the correct antonym :

Everyone should give respect to their parents.

A. disobey C. cheat

B. disrespect D. love

139. Choose the correct antonym :

The interior part of the earth remains very hot.

A. inner C. outside

B. inside D. exterior

140. Choose the correct antonym :

It was a rough wooden bed.

A. smooth C. silky     

B. soft D. rocky

141. Name the correct tense form of the

underlined words:

By this time day after tomorrow I shall have reached my friend's house.

A. Simple Past

B. Future Perfect

C. Future Continuous

D. Future Perfect continuous.

142. Select the correct tense :

After I ............. (finish) my work, I went to bed.

A. has finished C. had finished

B. have finishedD. Finished

143. Select the correct tense :

By this time tomorrow we ........... (wait) here.

A. shall be waiting

B. waited

C. will wait

D. are waiting

144. Select the correct tense form of the

verb :

Columbus ................ (discover) America.

A. will discover

B. discovered

C. was discovered

D. will be discovered

145. Fill in the blank :

I got my shirt ............. in blue.

A. dyed C. doer

B. died D. none of these

146. Fill in the blank :

Amul ......... of Gujarat supplies milk.

A. diary C. daily

B. dairy D. none of these

147. Fill in the blank :

He gave me a bearer.............

A. check C. cheque

B. chalk D. none of these

148. Select the suitable word :

Smoking ........ our health.

A. effect C. affects

B. defect D. none of these

149. Match the following Column A with

Column B :

Column A Column B

1. ancient a. unrefined

2. crude b. olden

3. invade c. refused

4. denied d. attack

Codes :

1 2 3 4

A. a b d c

B. b c d a

C. c a d b

D. b a d c

150. Match the following Column A with

Column B :

Column A Column B

1. gushing a. particle

2. speck b. perhaps

3. hanging c. bursting

4. probably d. suspending

Codes :

1 2 3 4

A. d c a b

B. b c d a

C. c a d b

D. a c d b

TNPSC GROUP 2 2007 question paper part2

51. Ajanta caves are located in the State of

A. Maharashtra

B. Andhra Pradesh

C. Orissa

D. Karnataka

52. The longest rail route in India is

A. Delhi – Mumbai

B. Delhi – Kolkata

C. Guwahati – Thiruvananthapuram

D. Amritsar – Puri

53. Periyar Wildlife Sacturay is situated in the State of

A. Tamil Nadu

B. Kerala

C. Karnataka

D. Andhra Pradesh

54. Match List I correctly with List II and select your answer using the

codes given below :

List I List II

a. Seismograph 1. Himalayas

b. Deccan Plateau 2. Andaman

c. Barren Island 3. Earthquake

d. Tethys Sea 4. Basalt Lava

Codes :

a b c d

A. 1 2 4 3

B. 2 3 1 4

C. 3 4 2 1

D. 2 1 4 3

55. Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A) : In recent decades, villages between Kombai and Bodinaickanur in Theni district of Tamil Nadu suffer severely from sandstorms.

Reason (R) : These villages lie in the rain-shadow regions of the Western Ghats.

Now select your answer according to the coding scheme given below:

A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is

the correct explanation of (A).

B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)

is not the correct explanation

of (A).

C. (A) is true, but (R) is false.

D. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

56. Rapid and sudden sliding of large mass of mixture of snow/ice with rock materials is

A. Landslide C. Rockslide

B. Avalanche D. Tsunami

57. Pick the correct statement from the following:

A. Kaziranga National Park is unique among Indian wildlife habitats for Rhino and Wild Buffalo.

B. Kaziranga National Park is unique among Indian wildlife habitats for Lions and Wild Buffalo.

C. Kaziranga National Park is unique among Indian wildlife habitats for Tigers and Elephants.

D. Kaziranga National Park is unique among Indian wildlife habitats for Elephants and Lions.

58. INSAT II-B was successfully launched in

A. July, 1993

B. April, 1975

C. July, 1979

D. November, 1981

59. Red soil is fond widely in

A. Gangetic plain

B. Peninsular India

C. Himalayan mountain

D. Coastal plains

60. Coffee cultivation in India is in the state of

A. Kerala

B. Tamil Nadu

C. Karnataka

D. Himachal Pradesh

61. Which one of the following universities was started in the year 1983?

A. Madurai Kamarajar University

B. Periyar University

C. Mother Teresa Women's

University

D. Madras University

62. In which year was ‘Local Self Government’ established in India?

A. 1915

B. 1916

C. 1911

D. 1910

63. Which one of the following is correctly matched?

A. National Game – Cricket

B. National Tree – Banyan tree

C. National Flower – Rose

D. National Animal – Lion

64. Consider the following statements:

I. Free verses are different from traditional verses.

II. So, free verses have no grammatical boundaries.

Of the statements :

A. Both are correct

B. Both are wrong

C. I alone is correct

D. II alone is correct

65. Which one of the following is correctly matched?

A. Vanamamalai – Folklore

B. Agasthialingam – Literature

C. Kailasapathy – Linguistics

D. Cenavaraiyar – Folk dance

66. Which one of the following is the first novel in Tamil?

A. Kamalambal Charithiram

B. Prathapa Mudaliar Charithiram

C. Padmavathi Charithiram

D. Mohamul

67. In which year was Tamil Virtual University inaugurated?

A. 2000 C. 2002

B. 2001 D. 2003

68. Who among the Chief Ministers of Tamil Nadu introduced the Nutrition

Meals Schemes?

A. Bhaktavatsalam

B. Kamaraj

C. Karunanidhi

D. M.G.Ramachandran

69. In which year was the Madras University established?

A. 1857 C. 1887

B. 1887 D. 1926

70. Match List I correctly with List II and select your answer using the

codes given below :

List I

a. Parthasarathy

b. K.V. Manisekharan

c. Prabhanjan

d. Balakumaran

List II

1. Merkuri Pookkal

2. Kakkai Chiraginile

3. Kurinjimalar

4. Nilachoru

Codes :

a b c d

A. 1 2 3 4

B. 2 3 4 1

C. 3 4 2 1

D. 4 1 3 2

71. The institute which gives primary importance to agriculture in Tamil Nadu is located at

A. Mudumalai

B. Kooduvancheri

C. Coimbatore

D. Budhanoor

72. The person responsible for the Poondi Drinking Water Project was

A. Rajaji

B. Sathyamurthy

C. Kamaraj

D. Bakthavathsalam

73. The first satellite sent India is

A. Apollo - 7 C. Bhaskara

B. Aryabhatta D. Apple

74. Which of the following animals was killed by the car of Manuneedhi Chola's son?

A. Kitten C. Puppy

B. Lamb D. Calf

75. If 30% of a certain number is 12-6, then the number is

A. 41 C. 43

B. 42 D. 40

76. Fast track courts were launched by Centre on

A. April 1, 2001

B. May 10, 2002

C. June 15, 2000

D. None of these

77. In which year did India become the founder member of WTO?

A. 1985 C. 1994

B. 1990 D. 1996

78. Which of the following districts ranks first on the basis of population density (2001)?

A. Coimbatore

B. Tiruchirapalli

C. Salem

D. Chennai

79. Which State has the highest density of population as per the 2001 Census?

A. Kerala

B. Maharashtra

C. Uttar Pradesh

D.West Bengal

80. Who is the present Lok Sabha Speaker?

A. A.B. Bardhan

B. Jyoti Basu

C. Somnath Chatterjee

D. None of them

81. Insectivorous plants capture insects for obtaining

A. calcium C. carbon

B. nitrogen D. cobalt

82. The protein essential for chromatin formation is

A. Actin C. Histone

B. Tubulin D. Myosin

83. The treatment of milk to eliminate pathogenic bacteria is known as

A. isolation C. pasteurization

B. sterilisation D. fermentation

84. The five kingdom concept was proposed by

A. Linnaeus C. Theophrastus

B. Whittaker D. John Ray

85. The nucleolus is rich in

A. DNA and proteins

B. DNA and lipids

C. RNA and lipids

D. RNA and proteins

86. “One gene – one enzyme hypothesis” was coined by

A. Henry Osborn

B. Beadle and Tatum

C. Jacob and Monod

D. Best and Tailor

87. World Environment Day is

A. 21st March

B. 5th June

C. 1st December

D. 2nd December

88. Instrument used to measure the blood pressure is

A. Sphygmomanometer

B. Blood pressure meter

C. Thermometer

D. Stethoscope

89. Natality is

A. birth rate C. death rate

B. survival rate D. none of these

90. Diphtheria disease is connected with

A. lungs C. throat

B. liver D. blood

91. Sound travels at maximum speed in

A. vacuum C. air

B. water D. steel

92. A woman's voice is shriller than a man's voice due to

A. higher frequency

B. higher amplitude

C. lower frequency

D. weak vocal chords

93. Which one of the following devices convert electrical energy into mechanical energy?

A. Dynamo

B. Electric motor

C. Transformer

D. Inductor

94. The process of nuclear fission occurs mainly in

A. nuclear reactors

B. chemical reactions

C. hydrogen bomb

D. sun

95. The process responsible for the enormous energy in the sun is

A. nuclear fission

B. nuclear fusion

C. the burning of gases

D. as yet unknown

96. Which one of the following is correctly matched?

A. Vitamin A – Anaemia

B. Glucose – Eyesight

C. Iodine – Goitre

D. Cyanocobalamin – Diabetes

97. Which one of the following is neither an element nor a compound?

A. Silver C. Air

B. Water D. Sucrose

98. Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A) : Electric cookers are coated with magnesium oxide.

Reason (R) : It protects them against fire.

Now select your answer according to the coding scheme given below:

A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

C. (A) is true, but (R) is false.

D. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

99. The element(s) which exist in liquid state at room temperature is (are)

I. Sodium

II. Bromine

III. Mercury

IV. Magnesium

Of these :

A. I alone is correct

B. I and II are correct

C. II and III are correct

D. all are correct

100. Which of the following is the correct

order of calorific values of fuel?

A. Hydrogen > Petrol > Wood

B. Wood > Hydrogen > Petrol

C. Petrol > Wood > Hydrogen

D.Wood > Petrol > Hydrogen