Thursday, 2 June 2011





1.Who is the Governor of Reserve Bank of India at present?
A) B.Y. Reddy B) C. Rangarajan
C) Bimal Jalan D) D. Subbarao
2.Match List-I with List II correctly and select your answer using the codes
given below:
List-I
a) Sirpi
b) Gnana Koothan
c) Erode Thamizh Anban
d) Puviyarasu
Codes:
a b c d
A) 2 3 1 4
B) 4 3 1 2
List-II
1. Thoni Varugiradhu
2. Iduthan
3. Anru Veru Kizhamai
4. Surya Nizhal
Dream Dare Win
www.jeywin.com
C) 1 2 4 3
D) 3 1 2 4
3.Which of the following is considered as a non-economic activity?
A) Teaching in a class B) Patient attended by a doctor
C) Mother taking care of her child D) travelling in a bus
4.Positron was discovered by
A) Rutherford B) Dirac
C) Madam Curie D) Chadwick
5.Floppy disk is a / an
A) storage device B) input device
C) output device D) input-output device
6.If the actual value of an item is 415 and its estimated value is 400, the
absolute error is
A) -15 B) 15
C) 0.0375 D) -0.0361
7.Which one of the following schedules of the Constitution of India lists the
names of States and specifies their territories?
A) First B) Second
C) Third D) Fourth
8.Where were the ancient paintings discovered first in Tamil Nadu?
A) Keelvalai B) Chittanavasal
C) Mallapadi D) Panaimalai
9.The author of the 'Iniyavai narpadhu' is
A) Villambi Naganar B) Boodham Sendhanar
C) Kani Medhaviar D) Nalladhanar
10.Match List-I with List II correctly and select your answer using the codes
given below:
List-I
a) Needhi Devan Mayakkam
b) Parasakthi
c) Narkkalikarargal
d) Pasi
Codes:
a b c d
A) 3 4 1 2
B) 1 3 4 2
C) 2 1 3 4
D) 4 2 1 3



Thursday, 7 April 2011

TNPSC GROUP 2 2001 question paper part1


 1. Density of matter is
defined as
A. mass / volume
B. mass × volume
C. volume / mass
D. none of these
2. The resultant upthrust on a body partly immersed in liquid acts through
A. the centre of gravity
B. the metacentre
C. the centre of pressure
D. none of these
3. A transverse wave travels along z-axis. The particles of the medium travels along
A. z-axis C. y-axis
B. x-axis D. in x-y plane
4. Joule-Thomson cooling is
A. temperature dependent
B. temperature independent
C. dependent on the molecular weight of the gas
D. dependent on the total mass of
the gas
5. The principle of action of points is used in
A. capacitors
B. inductors
C. resistors
D. lightning arrestors
6. A jet engine works under the principle of
A. mass
B. energy
C. linear momentum
D. angular momentum
7. To find the temperature of the sun, the following law is used:
A. Charles’ law
B. Stefan’s fourth power law of
radiation
C. Boyle’s law
D. Kirchhoff’s law
8. Calotropis is an example of the following phyllotaxy:
A. opposite and decussate
B. spiral
C. whorled
D. alternate
9. Radio carbon dating is used to
A. find diseases
B. find the age of relics
C. find the carbon content in the
atmosphere
D. none of these
10. Frequency modulation is more advantageous than amplitude modulation because
A. there will be no distortion
B. distortion will be maximum
C. no internal noises produced
D. internal noises can be filtered
11. X-rays travel with the velocity of
A. light
B. sound
C. positive rays
D. alpha rays
12. A loudspeaker converts
A. electrical energy into sound energy
B. sound energy into electrical energy
C. small sound into a large sound
D. none of the above
13. The transverse wave nature of light was proved by
A. interference C. polarisation
B. diffraction D. refraction
14. Electric iron takes a long time to cool because of
A. greater emissivity
B. lesser emissivity
C. less absorptive power
D. more absorptive power
15. Helium is preferred to hydrogen in airships because it
A. has greater lifting power
B. is less dense
C. cheaper
D. does not form explosive
mixture with air
16. Excessive consumption of alcohol damages the
A. liver C. heart
B. kidneys D. lungs
17. Which of the following has the smell of garlic?
A. White phosphorus
B. Red phosphorus
C. Phosphorus chloride
D. Phosphine
18. A common nitrogenous fertilizer is
A. urea
B. superphosphate
C. triple phosphate
D. potassium chloride
27. The acid which etches glass is
A. nitric acid
B. sulphuric acid
C. hydrofluoric acid
D. hypochlorous acid
28. Which of the following diseases is likely to spread in the entire community if a leaky septic tank
contaminates the water supply?
A. Cholera C. Tuberculosis
B. Cancer D. Leprosy
29. Yeast help in the production of
A. oxygen C. alcohol
B. glucose D. salts
30. Many pulses are obtained from plants of the family
A. Euphorbiaceae
B. Fabaceae
C. Asteraceae
D. Musaceae
31. Which of the following protozoans possesses definite shape?
A. Amoeba
B. Paramecium
C. Both of these
D. None of these
32. Which of the following is used for culture medium of bacterial growth?
A. Iodine C. Sugar
B. Agar-Agar D. Alcohol
33. Malaria is caused by
A. virus C. protozoa
B. bacteria D. fungi
34. One of the following is the
simplest land plant:
A. Bryophytes C. Algae
B. Lichens D. Fungi
19. Which element is a metalloid in the following?
A. Copper C. Aluminium
B. Arsenic D. Gold
20. Night blindness is caused due to
the deficiency of
A. Vitamin A C. Vitamin K
B. Vitamin B D. Vitamin E
21. Mercury is used in thermometers because it
A. is heavy
B. is a liquid
C. expands uniformly
D. is a metal
22. Sodium chloride is the scientific name of
A. common salt C. rust
B. soft coke D. chalk
23. Fresh foods and fruits contain more of
A. proteins C. vitamins
B. fats D. carbohydrates
24. Electric bulbs are filled with the gas
A. oxygen
B. carbon dioxide
C. argon
D. nitrogen
25. The sides of a match box contains
A. red phosphorus
B. white phosphorus
C. phosphorus pentoxide
D. none of these
26. Penicillin was discovered by
A. Edward Jenner
B. J.C. Bose
C. Alexander Fleming
D. William Harvey
35. Bacteria generally multiply by
A. binary fission
B. multiple fission
C. longitudinal fission
D. all of these
36. Agar-agar is obtained from
A. gelidium C. ectocarpus
B. laminaria D. fucus
37. Which one of the following animals is cold-blooded?
A. Pigeon C. Dog
B. Fish D. Man
38. Nitrogen fixation is done by
A. blue-green algae
B. green algae
C. brown algae
D. red algae
39. Which type of cancer is the most common?
A. Carcinoma C. Lymphoma
B. Sarcoma D. Leukaemia
40. Which bacteria produce vinegar in sugar solutions?
A. Escherichia
B. Acetobacter
C. Acetobacter aceti
D. Rhizobium
41. Baker’s yeast is
A. Zygosaccharomyces
octosporus
B. Saccharomyces cerevisae
C. Laminaria
D. S. Ludwigii
42. The tallest tree occurs in
A. Pteridophytes
B. Monocots
C. Gymnosperms
D. Dicots
43. Which of the following has been identified as the main source of
environmental pollution in the city of Delhi?
A. Automobiles
B. Cement Industry
C. Fertilizer Industry
D. Thermal Power Station
44. pH of water is
A. 4 C. 12
B. 7 D. 0
45. The deficiency of iodine causes
A. diabetes C. rickets
B. scurvy D. goitre
46. The poisonous substance that is present in tobacco is
A. Morphine C. Nicotine
B. Aspirin D. Reserpine
47. Which one of the following is excreted in Urine?
A. Sugar C. Protein
B. Creatin D. Fat
48. Who are more likely to get tapeworm?
A. Fish eaters C. Meat eaters
B. Pork eaters D. Beef eaters
49. In which animal was the AIDS virus first detected?
A. Rat C. Horse
B. Rabbit D. Monkey
50. Hargovind Khurana is credited for the discovery of
A. synthesis of protein
B. synthesis of gene
C. synthesis of nitrogenous bases
D. none of these

Friday, 1 April 2011

TNPSC 2005 – QUESTION PAPER PART 2


101. In a surgical patient which of the following preoperative preparation effectively reduces infection rate?
a. Antiseptic bathing of the patients body
b. Shorter period of preoperative hospital stay.
c. Preoperative shaving five minutes before surgery
d. Antiseptic scrubbing of the surgeons hands.

102. The safe method of administering general anesthesia is through
a. Tracheostomy tube
b. Non- cuffed endotracheal tube
c. Cuffed endotracheal tube
d. Endobronchial tube.

103. The initial fluid replacement in a case of burns is dependent upon
a. hematocrit value
b. blood pressure
c. surface area involved
d. the depth of the burns

104. Minimum amount of GI bleed to cause Melena is
a. 30ml b. 60 ml
c. 120 ml d. 10 ml

105. Most malignant type of Ca stomach is
a. Proliferative growth
b. Ulcerative growth
c. Linitis plastica
d. Superficial spreading type

106. Emphysematous Cholecystitis occurs commonly in
a. Sarcoidosis
b. Systemic Lupus Erythematosis
c. Diabetes mellitus
d. Gas gangrene

107. Common site involved in Toxic Megacolon is
a. Ascending colon
b. Descending colon
c. Transverse colon
d. Sigmoido-rectal area.

108. Operation of choice for Resectable Cancer Rectum 4 cms above the anal verge is
a. Anterior resection
b. abdomino – perineal resection
c. resection and anastomosis
d. Davis procedure

109. Barret’s esophagus are found in
a. Reflux esophagitis
b. Following burns
c. Following head injury
d. In Typhoid, T.B, and amebiasis

110. Gastric ulcer occurs most commonly at
a. Fundus b. Body
c. Pyloric antrum d. Greater curvature

111. Couvelaire uterus is seen in
a. Placenta previa b. Vasa previa
c. Abruptio placenta d. all of these

112. Maternal syphilis is associated with abortion at
a. Early first trimester b. Second trimester
c. IUD d. None of these

113. Physiological edema of pregnancy is
best treated with the following
a. crepe bandage b. Diuretics
c. Rest d. Salt restricted diet

114. Amniocentesis is indicated in all,
except
a. alpha fetoprotein study b. breech
c. chromosomal study d. Fetla maturity

115. Neutrophil examination can indicate
sex from
a. number of lobes
b. presence of drumstick
c. nature of granules
d. size of cell

116. Common cause for Decubitus ulcer in prolapse uterus is
a. Infection b. Injury
c. Conjestion d. Malignancy

117. Myomectomy is done in a patient to conserve
a. Reproductive function
b. Menstrual function
c. Feminity
d. none of these

118. Condom is used in the following, except
a. Following vasectomy
b. Treatment of Vasectomy
c. immunological infertility
d. Asherman syndrome


119. Ovulation inducing drugs include the following except
a. Clomiphene citrate
b. Human menopausal gonadotropin
c. Follicle stimulating hormone
d. Progesterone

120. Diagnosis of Vesicular mole can be made confidently by
a. clinical examination b. X ray
c. HCG levels d. Ultrasound

121. Which of the following anti-epileptic drugs is used as alternative to Lithium in Mania and bipolar disorder?
a. Phenytoin b. Ethosuximide
c. Carbamazepine d. Vigabatrin

122. Long term thiazide therapy causes hyperglycemia by
a. reducing insulin release
b. interfering with glucose utilization in tissues
c. increasing sympathetic activity
d. increasing corticosteroid secretion.

123. Drug of choice for radical cure of P.vivax malaria is
a. Chloroquine b. Quinine
c. Primaquine d. Halofantrine

124. The rationale of giving beta blockers in angina is that they
a. dilate coronary arteries
b. decrease the perload
c. decrease the work of the heart
d. increase the O2 consumption

125. Effects of the Glucocorticoids include all of the following except
a. Altered fat deposition
b. Increased blood glucose
c. increased skin protein systhesis
d. Inhibition of Leukotriene synthesis

126. The side effect which limits the use of oral iron therapy is
a.epigastric pain b. black stool
c. staining of teeth d. metallic taste

127. The agent that is effective against Helicobacter pylori in peptic ulcer is
a. Bismuth b. Pirenzepine
c. Aluminium hydroxide d. amoxicillin

128. The anti-neoplastic drug used in Psoriasis is
a. Mitotane b. Mechlorethamine
c. Melphalan d. Methotrexate

129. Thyrotoxicosis can be treated with
a. Glucocorticoids b. Methimazole
c. Propyl thiouracil d. All of these

130. The anti-emetic drug with least extrapyramidal side effect is
a. Metoclopropamide b. Chlorpromazine
c. Prochlorperazine d. Domperidone

131. The main type of lipids found in tissues in starving individual in the end of first week of fasting is
a. Phospholipids b. Triacylglycerol
c. Cholesterol d. Cholesterol esters.

132. Which of the following lipoproteins would contribute to a measurement of
plasma cholesterol in a normal individual following a 12 hour fast?
a. Chylomicrons b. VLDL
c. Both VLDL & LDL d. LDL

133. Ketosis is ascribed in part to
a. a slowdown in fat metabolism
b. an over-production of acetyl CoA
c. an under production of acetyl CoA.
d. an over-production of glucose

134. Respiratory distress syndrome in premature infants is due to the absence of ….. in the lung.
a. Dipalmitoyl lecithin
b. Cephalin
c. Phosphatidyl inositol
d. Phosphatidyl ethanolamine

135. The free fatty acids of blood are
a. metabolically inert
b. mainly bound to beta lipoprotein
c. stored in the fat deposits
d. mainly bound to serum albumin

136. The normal route of Calcium excretion is
a. kidney and liver
b. kidney and intestine
c. kidney, intestine and pancreas
d. kidney, liver and pancreas.

137. A rise in blood calcium may indicate
a. Paget’s disease b. vitamin D deficiency
c. Cushing’s disease d. Hypervitaminosis D

138. Hypermagnesemisa is seen in
a. Hyperthyroidism b. Renal failure
c. Chronic infection d. Malabsorption

139. Specific gravity of the normal urine is
a. 1.010 – 1.100 b. 1.040 – 1.100
c. 1.150 – 1.250 d. 1.010 – 1.025

140. Prothrombin time in obstructive jaundice
a. is normal
b. decreases
c. becomes normal after Vitamin K injection
d. increases after Vitamin K injection

141. Hashimotos disease is
a. autoimmune disease of thyroid
b. excessive secretion of Adrenal cortex
c. disorder of motor system of brain
d. none of these

142. Plasma cortisol level is maximal around
a. 8-9 pm b. 2-3 pm
c. 8am d. midnight

143. Cushing syndrome is caused by
a. hyposecretion of growth hormone
b. hyposecretion of thyroxine
c. hypersecretion of cortisol
d. hypersecretion of pituitary hormones.

144. Identify the wrong statement about cortisol:
a. Secretion increased following injury
b. favours protein synthesis
c. enhances effects of antigen – antibody reactions
d. tends to lower blood pressure.

145. Osmotic diuresis effect usually occurs in the
a. glomerulus b. Distal tubule
c. Collecting duct d. Proximal tube

146. The following statements are true for Gastrin except in
a. stimulates secretion of Hcl and Pepsinogen
b. decreases gastric antral mobility
c. weakly stimulates gall bladder contraction
d. increases resting pressure of lower esophageal sphincter.

147. Commonest carcinoma in female is of
a. uterus b. cervix
c. breast d. ovary

148. A cholagogue
a. increases the rate of secretion of bile
b. increases the contraction of gall bladder
c. increases the storage of bile in G.B.
d. none of these

149. Blood group antigen is
a. carried by sex chromosomes
b. attached to plasma proteins
c. attached to hemoglobin molecule
d. found in saliva

150. All of the following cells arises from a common committed stem cells except
a. Red blood cells b. Platelets
c. Granulocytes d. Lymphocytes

151. Hypochromic microcytic RBCs are a eature of anemia due to
a. Iron deficiency b. B12 deficiency
c. Folate deficiency d. All of these

152. Myelofibrosis is diagnosed by
a. Bone marrow aspiration
b. Peripheral smear
c. Trephine biopsy
d. Bone marrow imprint.

153. The commonest type of leukemia encountered in children is
a. A.L.L1 type b. C.L.L
c. C.M.L juvenile type d. C.M.M.L

154. Neutrophilia is a common manifestation in the following conditions except
a. Pyogenic infection
b. Typhoid fever
c. Myocardial infarction
d. Diabetic ketoacidosis

155. Among the following, the condition which presents with diminished reticulocyte count is
a. Aplastic anemia
b. Bloodless anemia
c. Hemolytic anemia
d. Lueco-erythroblastic reaction

156. Pigments derived from hemoglobin are all,. Except
a. Bilirubin b. Hematin
c. Lipofuchsin d. Hemosiderin

157. The presence and rapid multiplication of pathogenic bacteria in blood is
a. Septicemia b. toxemia
c. Bacteremia d. all of these

158. The following are sites of Metastatic Calcification, except
a. alveoli b. blood vessels
c. lymph nodes d. renal tubules

159. Which of the following transmits the HIV most efficiently?
a. Semen b. Blood
c. Saliva d. Breast milk

160. The aetiologic agent implicated in the production of Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is
a. Ebstein – Barr virus
b. Oral Candidiasis
c. Herpes simplex Type II
d. Rhinosporidium seeberi.

161. At the time of curettage for suspected endometrial carcinoma, the uterus is
perforated with a sound. The treatment would be
a. Conservative
b. Immediate laparatomy and hysterectomy
c. Laparoscopy and closure of perforation
d. Immediate chemotherapy

162. Hysterosalpingogram is useful in the diagnosis of all the following
conditions, except
a. Cervical incompetence
b. Tuberculous endometritis
c. Ashermans syndrome
d. Scar integrity in previous LSLs.

163. The LH surge precedes ovulation by
a. 12 hours b. 24-36 hours
c. 48 hours d. 60-72 hours

164. Post – Caesarean pregnancy should be
a. delivered by repeat Caesarean section
b. should have a vaginal delivery
c. an institutional delivery
d. none of these

165. Primi gravida is seen in the first trimester with primary pulmonary
hypertension. You will advise
a. Medical termination of pregnancy
b. Hospitalization
c. Outpatient treatment
d. angiography.

166. In a twin pregnancy Caesarean section
is indicated in
a. Abruptio placentae
b. Acute polyhydramnios
c. When first fetus presens as transverse lie
d. all of these

167. If a woman C/O. Bleeding per vaginum with history of two months
amenorrhea. One should think of
a. Threatened abortion
b. Ectopic pregnancy
c. Metropathia hemorrhagica
d. All of these

168. Red degeneration of Fibroid is associated with
a. Pregnancy
b. Aseptic infarction
c. Thrombosis
d. Leukocytosis

169. Which of the following is not an indication for Classical Caesarean?
a. Carcinoma cervix
b. Cervical fibroid
c. Vesicovaginal fistula repaired previously
d. Classical Caesarean previously

170. Danazol is useful in
a. Amennorhea
b. Infertility
c. endometriosis
d. Fibroadenoma breast

171. All are true of Parathion poisoning except
a. decrease in true cholinesterase level
b. respiratory depression common
c. pupil constricted
d. opiates ideal for convulsions

172. Complications of Mitral Stenosis include all , except
a. acute left ventricular failure
b. Pulmonary apoplexy
c. Pneumonia
d. Infective endocarditis.

173. In India, for Rheumatic fever all are present, except
a. Syndenhams Chorea
b. Erythema marginatum
c. arthralgia
d. Raised C reactive protein.

174. In Atrial fibrillation, all are true except
a. varying intensity of first heart sound
b. precipitation or aggravation of existing CCF
c. Pulse deficit rarely
d. embolic manifestations.

175. All are features of Pulmonary Hypertesnion, except
a. Early diastolic murmur
b. ejection click
c. Canon vein in jugulars
d. Prominent palpable pulmonary artery pulsations over chest.

176. Coarctation of aorta is associated with all, except
a. Hypertension in lower limbs
b. Turners syndrome
c. Bicuspid aortic valves
d. Polycystic kidney.

177. All are true of methyl alcohol poisoning, except
a. occurs in groups of persons
b. toxic effects due to acetaldehyde
c. causes blurring of vision
d. treatment is with ethyl alcohol.

178. streptokinase therapy is contra – indicated in all, except
a. allergic reaction
b. second dose within six months
c. recent injury
d. age above 50 years.

179. Pulmonary hypertension occurs in all , except
a. Ostium secundum septal effect
b. Patent ductus arteriosus
c. Fallot’s tetralogy
d. Mitral incompetence

180. All are true of opening snap in Mitral Stenosis, except
a. it is absent when valve is calcified
b. occurs before II sound
c. heard all over precordium
d. ringing quality.

181. Boerhoove’s syndrome is
a. partial thickness rupture of esophagus
b. full thickness rupture of esophagus
c. Rupture of esophageal varices
d. Rupture of gastro – esophageal junction.

182. Common Goitre in Iodine Deficiency is
a. Simple colloid b. Single nodule
c. Multiple Nodule d. Malignant nodule.

183. Plasma Cortisol levels show Diurnal
variation with highest values
a. in the morning b. at bed time
c. in the evening d. at midnight

184. Which of the following Naevi becomes malignant?
a. Blue Naevus
b. Hairy Naevus
c. Junctional Naevus
d. Intradermal Naevus

185. Metabolic acidosis occurs in
a. Diabetes b. Starvation
c. Renal insufficiency d. all of these

186. Amaurosis fugax is
a. Hemiplegia caused by embolus in middle cerebral artery
b. Fleeting blindness due to embolus in central retinal artery
c. Gangrene of intestines due to thrombosis of mesenteric artery
d. Splenic infarction due to throbosis of splenic artery.

187. Step walls are associated with the transmission of
a. Amebiasis b. Ascariasis
c. Ancylostomiasis d. Dracunculosis

188. The toxic agent in Epidemic Dropsy is
a. BOAA b. Ergot alkaloids
c. Sanginarine d. None of these

189. Evolution of Rash in a chicken pox case passes through the following four
stages. Identify the correct order in which they appear.
a. Macule, Papule, Scab, Vesicle.
b. Papule, Macule, Vesicle, Scab.
c. Vesicle, Papule, Macule, Scab.
d. Macule, Papule, Vesicle, Scab.

190. The Odds ratio is used as measure of association in a
a. Retrospective Cohort Study
b. Cohort Study
c. Prospective Cohort Study
d. Case Control Study

191. Causes of Hypergonadotrophic hypogonadism are following, except
a. Klinefelters syndrome
b. Turners syndrome
c. Cushing syndrome
d. Leprosy.

192. Following are true about Psoriasis, except
a. Well defined erythematous plaques
b. Parakeratosis
c. Not associated with HLA CW6
d. Exacerbated by Propranolol.

193. Clinical features of raised Intracranial pressure include all, except
a. Tachycardia b. Vomitting
c. Personality changes d. 6th Nerve palsy

194. Pulsus Paradox occurs in
a. Cardiac tamponade
b. Bronchial Asthma
c. Pneumo-thorax
d. all of these

195. Turners syndrome is associated with all the following, except
a. Karyotype of 45 XO
b. Genital hypoplasia
c. Blind vagina
d. Streak ovaries

196. The condition of waxy flexibility is encountered during examination of
patients with
a. Alcoholic Hallucinosis b. Mania
c. Catatonic Schizophrenia
d. Alzheimers disease

197. In the following, mention the drug which is not used in Erythematous
Nodosum Leprosum.
a. Steroids b. Chlorpromazine
c. Thalidomide d. Adriamycin

198. The key mediator in Scar formation are following, except
a. T.F.G beta b. FGF
c. Macrophages d. Polymorphs

199. In renal transplantation, the dreaded cause for graft loss is
a. Acute rejection
b. Vascular thrombosis of artery.
c. Vascular thrombosis of vein
d. Ansatomatic dehiscence 

200.Many pulses are obtained from plants of the family
A. Euphorbiaceae
B. Fabaceae
C. Asteraceae
D. Musaceae

Monday, 28 March 2011

TNPSC 2005 – QUESTION PAPER PART 1




1. Longest telomeres are found in which cells?
a. Nerve cell
b. Retinal cell
c. Sperms
d. Skeletal muscle cell

2. Conjugated Hyper-bilirubinemia is found in the following conditions, except
a. Dubin- Johnson syndrome
b. Criggler – Najjar syndrome
c. Rotor Syndrome
d. Gilbert syndrome

3. Virchow’s Node is located in the
a. Axilla
b. Mediastinum
c. Left Supraclavicular region
d. Sub-mandibular region

4. Carcinoma Prostate is characterized by the following, except
a. androgen receptors
b. osteolytic secondaries
c. perineural invasion
d. single layer of cells

5. AIDS virus belongs to
a. Lassa virus
b. Lentic virus
c. Pox virus
d. Myxo virus

6. The commonest site of Tuberculosis in the GIT is
a. Stomach
b. Jejunum
c. Ileo-cecal region
d. Colon

7. The histological type of Bronchogenic carcinoma in smokers is
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Small cell carcinoma
c. Adenocarcinoma
d. Undifferentiated carcinoma

8. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
a. Urothelial carcinoma - Transitional cells
b. Renal cell carcinoma - Blastemal cells
c. Nephroblastoma - Eosinophilic cells
d. Oncocytoma - Clear cells

9. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
a. X-linked recessive disorder – Glycogen storage disease
b. Autosomal dominant disorder - Hemophilia A
c. Autosomal recessive disorder – Sickle cell anemia
d. Metabolic disorder – Hereditary spherocytosis

10. The sequence of events in Carcinogenesis is
a. Mutation in the genome, DNA damage,
Malignant neoplasm, Expression of altered gene products.
b. Mutation in the Genome, DNA damage, Expression of the altered gene products,
Malignant neoplasm
c. DNA damage, Expression of the altered gene products, Mutation in the Genome,
Malignant neoplasm
d. DNA damage, Mutation in the genome, Expression of the altered gene products,
Malignant neoplasm.

11. In Hemoglobin degradation, the first bile pigment formed is
a. Bilirubin b. Biliverdin
c. Bile acids d. Cholic acids

12. In Hepatic Jaundice with cholestasis,
urine contains
a. high levels of conjugated bilirubin and urobilinogen
b. high leves of conjugated bilirubin and negligible urobilinogen
c. high levels of unconjugated bilirubin and urobilinogen
d. high levels of unconjugated bilirubin and negligible urobilinogen.

13. Following are the examples of Unconjugated Hyperbilirubinemia except
a. Gilbert syndrome
b. Dubin – Johnson syndrome
c. Crigler – Najjar syndrome
d. Lucey – Driscoll syndrome

14. The Chloride Shift involves
a. K+ accompanying each bicarbonate that leaves the erythrocyte
b. Carbonic acid leaving the erythrocyte
c. Bicarbonate leaving the erythrocyte in exchange for chloride
d. Protons leaving the erythrocyte for each Co2 that enters

15. A patient with PCo2 of 60 mm Hg and
Plasma Bicarbonate of 25 mEq/L, is likely to have
a. Acute metabolic acidosis
b. Acute respiratory acidosis
c. Compensated respiratory acidosis
d. Chronic metabolic acidosis

16. Most circulating T3 and T4 are bound to
a. Thyroxine binding pre-albumin
b. Thryroxine binding globulin
c. Gamma globulin
d. Thyroglobulin

17. In patients with primary hypothyroidism, which of the following laboratory tests
will be useful?
a. Estimation of T3
b. Estimation of T4
c. Estimation of TBG
d. Detection of auto – antibodies..

18. Which of the following is required for crystallization and storage of the
hormone Insulin?
a. Mn b. Mg
c. Ca d. Zn

19. Which of the following substances is present in high concentration in the urine
of patients with Pheochromocytoma?
a. Epinephrine
b. Dopamine
c. Nor – epinephrine
d. 3 – methoxy – 4 –OH Mandelic acid.

20. Secondary Hypogonadism is due to
a. Pituitary gonadotropin deficiency
b. Pituitary corticotrophin deficiency
c. Testicular deficiency
d. Ovarian deficiency

21. Precursor of Testosterone is
a. Methyl testosterone
b. Pregnenalone
c. Aldosterone
d. Cortisone

22. The principal steroid secreted by the Fetal Adrenal cortex is
a. Progesterone
b. Dehydro EPI androsterone
c. Cotocosterone
d. Pregnenalone

23. Pneumothorax causes the following,except
a. Reduced vital capacity
b. Abnormal dullness to percussion on the affected side
c. Reduction in residual volume
d. Increased resonance on percussion on affected side

24. Constriction of bronchial smooth muscle can result from the following except
a. Irritation of bronchial mucosa
b. Cold stimulus to bronchial mucosa
c. Stimulation of local beta adreno – receptors
d. A decrease in PCo2 in bronchial air

25. PR interval in electrocardiogram denotes
a. beginning of atrial depolarization to end of
ventricular depolarization
b. beginning of atrial depolarization to beginning of ventricular depolarization
c. end of atrial depolarization to beginning of ventricular depolarization
d. end of atrial depolarization to end of ventricular depolarization

26. Work output of left ventricle is
a. 5 times more that of right
b. same as that of right
c. less than that of right
d. 20 times more than that of right

27. Positive Chronotropic effect means
a. increase in heart rate
b. increase in conductivity
c. increase in force of contraction
d. increase in excitability

28. Red colour – blindness is called
a. Deuteranopia b. Protanopia
c. Protanomaly d. Deuteranomaly

29. During Deep sleep there is a fall in
a. Hand skin temperature
b. Arterial Co2
c. Blood growth hormone/cortisol ratio
d. Metabolic rate

30. In Brown – Sequard syndrome , below the level of lesion, on the same side
a. loss of fine touch
b. loss of vibration sense
c. loss of stereognosis
d. all of these

31. The following are adverse reactions of nitrates, except
a. Headache b. Postural hypotension
c. Tolerance d. Bradycardia

32. The following agents are used in Acute Myocardial Infarction, except
a. Fibrinolytics b. Aspirin
c. Anti – fibrinolytics d. Heparin

33. The appropriate drug for Cardiogenic Shock is
a. Adrenaline b. Dopamine
c. Isoprenaline d. Nor – adrenaline

34. The most suitable tetracycline for use in a patient with impaired renal function is
a. Chlortetracycline b. Democlocycline
c. Oxytetracycline d. Doxycycline

35. The drug which does not possess H2 anti- histamine receptor antagonistic
action is
a. Cimetidine b. Ranitidine
c. Nizatidine d. Loratidine

36. Which of the following hypolipidemic agents causes constipation and
bloating?
a. Colestipol b. Cholestyramine
c. Both (a) and (b) d. none of these

37. The anti- asthma drug which cannot be administered by inhalation is
a. Theophylline b. Ipratropium bromide
c. Budesonide d. Terbutaline

38. Co – trimoxazole is a combination of
a. pyrimethamine and sulfadoxine
b. Trimethoprim and Sufixozaloe
c. Trimethoprim and sulfaphenazole
d. Trimethoprim and Sufamethoxazole

39. The drug used in prophylaxis of Rheumatic fever is
a. Procaine pencillin
b. Benzyl pencillin
c. Benzathine pencillin
d. Cloxacillin

40. The drug used for extra-pyramidal reaction to Chlorpromazine is
a. Physostigmine
b. Diphenhydramine
c. Propranolol
d. Metaclopropamide

41. Which one of the following muscles emerges through the two slips of Flexor Retinaculum?
a. Flexor carpi radialis
b. Flexor pollicis longus
c. Abductor pollicis longus
d. Flexor carpi ulnaris
.
42. The sensory nerve given off by the Axillary nerve is
a. Upper lateral cutaneous nerve of arm
b. Lower lateral cutaneous nerve of arm
c. Posterior cutaneous nerve of arm
d. Posterior cutaneous nerve of forearm

43. Unlocking of the knee joint to permit the flexion is caused by which muscle
a. Vastus medialis b. Biceps femoris
c. Popliteus d. Gatrocnemius

44. The nerve that supplies the skin over the
adjacent sides of big toe and second toe
is
a. sural b. Saphenous
c. Deep peroneal d. Superificial peroneal

45. The following is a branch of the fourth part of Vertebral artery?
a. Anterior inferior cerebellar artery
b. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
c. Pontine branches
d. Basilar artery

46. Palatine tonsil is developed from
a. First pharyngeal pouch
b. Second pharyngeal pouch
c. Tubotympanic recess
d. Third pharyngeal pouch

47. One of the following muscle is not a muscle of mastication
a. Temporalis b. Masseter
c. Buccinator d. Lateral pterygoid

48. Impulse flow towards a nerve cell occurs through
a. Dendrite b. Axon
c. Neuroglia d. none of these

49. Broca’s area is localized in
a. Superior temporal gyrus
b. Parietal lobe
c. Inferior frontal gyrus
d. Para-central lobule

50. The following structures cross in front of the vertebral column , except
a. Thoracic duct
b. Accesory Hemi – azygos vein
c. H emiazygos vein
d. Left superior intercostal vein

51. The commonest lump in the breast of a young female is
a. Fibrocystic disease
b. Fibroadenoma
c. Early breast cancer
d. Phylloides tumor

52. Traction injury to epiphysis of the vertebra is called
a. Osgood Schlatters disease
b. Kohlers disease
c. Severs disease
d. Scheurmanns disease

53. Trigger thumb is
a. Stenosing Tenosynovitis of Flexor Pollicis Longus
b. S tenosing Tenosynovitis of Abd. Pol. Longus and Ext. Pol. Brevis
c. Tenosynovitis of Abductor Pollicis
d. Tenosynovitis of Lumbircals and Interossei

54. The most common infection of hand is
a. Acute paronychia
b. Chronic paronychia
c. Terminal pulp space infection
d. Web space infection

55. The common cause of Tennis Elbow is
a. Bursitis
b. Enthesopathy at the region
c. Radial head ostephyte
d. Entrapment of posterior interosseous nerve

56. Most common complication of Clavicular fracture is
a. Malunion
b. Non – union
c. Injury to brachial plexus
d. Shoulder stiffness

57. Maximum tourniquet time for upper limb is
a. ½ hour b. 1 hour
c. 1 ½ hour d. 2 hours

58. The following malignancies are common in AIDS, except
a. Kaposi sarcoma
b. Burkitts lymphoma
c. Primary CNS lymphoma
d. Ca – colon

59. Partial thickness burn is characterized by all of the following except
a. becomes full thickness later
b. rarely causes severe physiological derangement
c. heals without grafting
d. moist and blistered

60. Necrotising Fascitis is caused by all the following organisms , except
a. Coliforms
b. Staphylococci
c. Bacteriodes
d. Clostridia

61. Kehr’s sign is positive in
a. Splenic rupture
b. Rupture of distended Gall bladder
c. Hepatic injury
d. Preforation of peptic ulcer

62. Lignocaine toxicity includes
a. Convulsions
b. Asystole
c. Methemoglobinemia
d. All of these

63. Mycosis fungoides is
a. Cutaneous lymphoma
b. Deep dermal fungal infection
c. Cutaneous tuberculosis infection
d. Skin eruptions due to rubella viruses

64. Common variety of piles is
a. Internal b. External
c. Internal – External d. none of these

65. Rectal strictures are more commonly seen with
a. Carcinoma Rectum b. Syphilis
c. Chancroid d. LGV

66. The following are true about Idiopathic Hypertrophic Aortic Stenosis, except
a. Autosomal dominant with complete penetrance
b. Sudden death
c. Associated Mitral Regurgitation
d. Verapamil ameliorate symptoms

67. Shrinking Lung syndrome is seen in
a. Systemic Lupus Erythematosis
b. Systemic Sclerosis
c. Poliomyelitis
d. Tuberculosis

68. All are autosomal dominant disorders except
a. Tuberous Sclerosis b. Polyposis coli
c. Cystic fibrosis d. Myotonia dystonia

69. cANCA is most commonly associated with
a. Wegeners Granulomatosis
b. Idiopathic Cresentric GN
c. Diffuse Glomerulosclerosis
d. none of these

70. Which of the following is not associated with Tetany?
a. Chvosteks sign b. Trousseau sign
c. Cole’s sign d. Erb’s sign

71. Regularly irregular pulse occurs in
a. Sinus arrhythmias
b. II degree heart block
c. Multifocal extra-systoles
d. none of these

72. Pleural effusion protein analysis less
than 2 gms occurs in
a. Meigs syndrome b. Pulmonary infarction
c. Malignancy d. Pneumonia

73. Beta blockers are contra-indicated in hypertension management when
associated with
a. Congestive heart failure b. Renal failure
c. Liver failure d. all of these

74. Palmar Erythema is associated with
a. Thyrotoxicosis b. Pregnancy
c. Liver disorders d. All of them

75. All are true of Impotence, except
a. In India, Psychogenic causes are rare
b. Diabetes impotence is common
c. It occurs as the side effect of drug therapy of hypertension
d. Papaverine improves the condition in some.

76.The initial treatment for pre-eclampsia consists of
a. Modified bed rest b. Salt restricted diet
c. Anti-hypertensives d. Sedatives.

77. Which of the following factors is most important in stimulating fetal growth?
a. Insulin b. Growth hormone
c. Cortisol d. Human placental lactogen

78. Wound infections observed within the first 2 days after Caesarean delivery are
usually caused by
a. Streptococci b. Clostridia
c. Staphylococci d. Bacteroides.

79. Maternal convulsions have been associated with which of the following
fetal heart rate patterns?
a. Early decelerations
b. Variable decelerations
c. Prolonged decelerations
d. Accelerations

80. The Marshall – Marchetti Krantz operation is a procedure done to correct
a. Chronic retention of urine
b. stress incontinence
c. urge incontinence
d. vesico-vaginal fistula

81. The following are diseases for which extended sickness benefit is payable for
309 days under the ESI act, except
a. Hemiplegia b. Hemolytic anemia
c. Chronic renal failure d. Tuberculosis

82. The following are the complications of Measles, except
a. Orchitis b. Diarrhea
c. Pneumonia d. Otitis media

83. Presumptive treatment for Malaria is given to
a. persons who travel to malaria endemic area
b. all fever cases
c. fever cases showing typical symptoms of malaria
d. persons who are positive for malarial parasites

84. Which of the following statements about the characteristics of Tardive Dyskinesia
is true?
a. It is more common in men than women
b. It includes abnormal movements of tongue
c. It occurs more often in treatment using Clozepin than other Antipsychotics
d. It usually occurs within 3 months of beginning of drug treatment.

85. Conventional anti-psychotics can cause
a. hyper-prolactinemia
b. Gynacomastia
c. Sexual dysfunction
d. All of these

86. All of the following may be effective in treating ADHD, except
a. Methyl phenydate hydrochlorine
b. chlorpromazine
c. Phenobarbitone
d. Dextro-amphetamine sulphate

87. Oral Rehydrating Salt contains
a. 15gm/litre of Glucose
b. 20gm/litre of Glucose
c. 25gm/litre of Glucose
d. 30gm/litre of Glucose.

88. What is the commonest organism
responsible for neonatal meningitis?
a. Hemophilus influenza b. E.coli
c. Meningococci d. none of these

89. Cholera is characterized by all , except
a. Effortless vomiting
b. Painful watery (Rice water) stools
c. Hypotension
d. Acute renal failure

90. In a patient with fever for 4 days, typhoid can be confirmed by
a. Positive WIDAL b. Positive blood culture
c. Leucocytosis d. Raised ESR.

91. Great Cardiac Vein lies in
a. Anterior inter-ventricular groove
b. Posterior inter-ventricular groove
c. Anterior atrio - ventricular groove
d. Posterior atrio-ventricular groove

92. The attachments of structure at the superior surface of Anterior
intercondylar area of tibia from before backwards are
a. Anterior horn of medial meniscus, anterior cruciate ligament, anterior horn of lateral
meniscus.
b. anterior horn of lateral meniscus, , anterior cruciate ligament, Anterior horn of
medial meniscus.
c. anterior cruciate ligament, Anterior horn of medial meniscus, anterior horn of lateral
meniscus.
d. anterior cruciate ligament, anterior horn of lateral meniscus, Anterior horn of medial
meniscus.

93. All of the following structures pass deep in the flexor retinaculum of hand, except
a. Tendons of flexor digitorum superficialis
b. Tendons of Flexor digitorum profundus
c. Tendon of Flexor pollcis longus
d. Tendon of the Flexor carpi ulnaris.

94. Rotator cuff is formed by the tendons of
a. Supraspinatus – Rhomboideus minor – Subscapularis – Infraspinatus
b. Supraspinatus – Infraspinatus – Teres major – Teres minor
c. Supraspinatus – Infraspinatus – Teres minor – Subscapularis
d. Infraspinatus – Subscapularis – Teres minor – Pectoralis minor.

95. Wrist drop is the result of injury to
a. Median nerve
b. Ulnar nerve
c. Musculo-cutaneous nerve
d. Radial nerve

96. Both dermal and epidermal Melanoblasts are formed from
a. General body ectoderm
b. Ectodermal placode
c. Neural plate
d. Neural crest

97. Which one of the following diseases is not X- linked recessive?
a. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
b. Christmas disease
c. Hemophilia
d. Marfans syndrome
98. The trigone of the urinary bladder is developed from
a. Vesicourethral canal
b. Mesonephric duct
c. Para-mesonephric duct
d. Allantoic diverticulum.

99. Which of the following is correctly matched?
a. Duodenum – Large intestine
b. Jejunum – Valve of Kerkring
c. Ileum – Brunners Gland
d. Appendix – Peyers patch.

100. The structure that lies anterior to the
 rectus abdominis above the costal margin is
a. Costal cartilages
b. Internal oblique aponeurosis
c. Transvers abdominis aponeurosis
d. External oblique aponeurosis.

Saturday, 26 March 2011

TNPSC GROUP 2 2007 question paper part4


151. Fill in the blank with gerund :
It is wise ....................................... new ideas.
A. to accept C. to be accepted
B. accepting D. accept

152. Fill in the blank with gerund :
It is our aim ................... the status of women.
A. raising C. to raisen
B. to be raised D. to raising

153. Change the following Noun into Verb form ‘acquisition’
A. acquisitive
B. acquisitiveness
C. acquire
D. none of these

154. Change the following Verb into Noun form :
‘apply’
A. applied C. apply for
B. applicable D. application

155. Select the correct question tag:
He can't speak English fluently.............?
A.Will he? C. Can he?
B. Does he? D. Did he?

156. Select the correct question tag:
I am right...................?
A. Aren't I? C. Have I?
B. Can I? D. Haven't?

157. Select the correct question tag:
Let's go to the beach .................?
A. Shall we? C. Haven't you?
B. Will you? D. Do you?

158. Select the correct question tag:
He has left already..............?
A. Hasn't he? C. Will he?
B. Doesn't he? D.Won't he?

159. Select the correct question tag:
He doesn't like tea ..............?
A. Does he? C. Will he?
B. Did he? D. Do he?

160. Select the correct question tag:
You didn't notice him ..............?
A. Don't you? C. Can you?
B. Did you? D.Will you?

161. Find out the error :
I have some book on Physics 1 2 3 4
A. 3 C. 4
B. 2 D. 1

162. Identify the Imperative sentence:
A. She has completed it
B. How tall the building is?
C. Bring me the red file at once.
D. Can you come with me?

163. Identify the Interrogative sentence:
A. Where are you coming from?
B. He is a doctor
C. She wants to become a lawyer
D. What a lovely sight!

164. Identify the Passive voice :
A. He writes a story
B. My uncle presented my sister a bangle
C. Let the door be opened
D. Raja was playing football

165. Identify the Present Perfect Continuous Tense :
A. I like to dance
B. She is writing a letter now
C. Mohan is working in this office
D. Kamala has been serving in this
institution since 1985

166. Identify the Passive voice :
A. Let the patients not be disturbed
B. Rahim is a lawyer
C. He goes to Mumbai
D. Rani and Vimala are playing chess

167. Fill in the blank with the suitable
infinitive :
................. the mountain is dangerous.
A. To be climbed
B. To climbing
C. To climb
D. none of these

168. Fill in the blank with the suitable infinitive :
I was happy ................. the news.
A. to hearing C. heard
B. to be heard D. to hear

169. Fill in the blank with the suitable infinitive :
The children are anxious ..........
A. to learn
B. to be learnt
C. to learning
D. to have been learnt

170. Fill in the blank with gerund :
................. too many sweets is bad for health.
A. To eating
B. To be eaten
C. Ate
D. Eating

171. Identify the complex sentence:
A. On hearing be bell, the boys stood up.
B. When the boys heard the bell, they stood up.
C. The boys heard the bell and they stood up.
D.We stood up on hearing the bell.

172. Identify the simple sentence :
A. Besides making a promise, she kept it.
B. Come here now or you cannot meet him.
C. Lalita was very weak but she walked to her office.
D. She heard the news and at once she began to cry.

173. Identify the simple sentence :
A. He is too weak to walk.
B. As Mary was rich she enjoyed all luxuries.
C. He saves some money and so he can buy a car.
D. The problem was very difficult and so I cannot solve it.

174. Identify the complex sentence :
A. I saw a building which was beautiful.
B. He was too foolish to follow me.
C. She obeys her husband's orders.
D. I do not know about his arrival.

175. Identify the odd word :
A. diplomat
B. statesman
C. ambassador
D. farmer

176. Find out the error :
I were received by the officers 1 2 3 at the airport 4
A. 4 C. 1
B. 2 D. 3

177. Find out the error :
The thief have been brought 1 3 to Chennai by van 3 4
A. 2 C. 4
B. 1 D. 3

178. Find out the error :
I does not know the answer 1 2 3 4
A. 3 C. 2
B. 1 D. 4

179. Find out the error :
He is going to college on bus 1 2 3 4
A. 3 C. 4
B. 2 D. 1

180. Find out the error :
Ramayana is a holy book 1 2 3 4
A. 4 C. 2
B. 3 D. 1

181. Identify the sentence pattern :
Raju presented me a dictionary.
A. SVO C. S.V.IO.DO
B. SVOA D. SVOC

182. Identify the sentence pattern :
They named him Diyana.
A. S.V.O.A C. A.S.V.C
B. S.V.O.C D. S.V.IO.DO

183. Identify the sentence pattern :
The children like sweets.
A. S.V.C
B. S.V.O
C. A.S.V.C
D. S.V.O.C

184. Identify the sentence pattern :
I met my uncle at the railway station.
A. S.V.O
B. S.V.O.A
C. S.V.O.C
D. S.V.IO.DO

185. Which of the following sentences
does not belong to the degrees of
comparison?
A. No other boy is as active as Raja.
B. Rani is the most obedient girl.
C. Have you finished your work?
D. Peacock is one of the most beautiful birds.

186. Identify the superlative degree.
A. The gold is one of the costliest metals.
B. Very few flowers are as beautiful as lotus.
C. Rohini is not older than Krishna.
D. No other boy is so tall as Kumar.

187. Identify the degree :
Gopi was not so clever as Raghu.
A. Comparative degree
B. Superlative degree
C. Positive degree
D. None of these

188. Identify the correct degree :
No other leader was as famous as Gandhiji.
A. Superlative degree
B. Comparative degree
C. Positive degree
D. None of these

189. Identify the correct degree:
Asoka is more famous than Babur.
A. Positive degree
B. Comparative degree
C. Superlative degree
D. None of these

190. Identify the compound sentence:
A. It is very cheap, but it is durable.
B. If you work hard, you will get a prize.
C. Although it is very cheap, it is durable.
D. People living in luxury, know nothing about poverty.

191. Fill in the blank with article :
............... palm tree is generally very tall.
A. The C. An
B. A D. No article

192. Fill in the blank with suitable article:
Her husband is ............. shrewd person.
A. the C. some
B. an D. a

193. Fill in the blank with suitable
article:
Germany is ........... European country.
A. a C. the
B. an D. no article

194. Fill in the blank with suitable article:
Ramu is ............. engineer.
A. the C. a
B. an D. few

195. Fill in the blank with suitable
article:
The child is eating ............. apple.
A. a C. none
B. the D. an

196. Fill in the blank with suitable preposition :
He has been trying ............. finish the work.
A. to C. in
B. by D. with

197. Fill in the blank with suitable preposition :
The mango was cut ............. my brother.
A. to C. by
B. with D. at

198. Fill in the blank with suitable preposition :
My house is ............. a lake.
A. by C. beside
B. at D. under

199. Fill in the blank with suitable preposition :
He was waiting ............. the bus.
A. for C. with
B. to D. by

200. Fill in the blank with suitable preposition :
He will come ............. Sunday.
A. on C. in
B. at D. by