TNPSC 2005 – QUESTION PAPER PART 1

1. Longest telomeres are found in which cells?
a. Nerve cell
b. Retinal cell
c. Sperms
d. Skeletal muscle cell

2. Conjugated Hyper-bilirubinemia is found in the following conditions, except
a. Dubin- Johnson syndrome
b. Criggler – Najjar syndrome
c. Rotor Syndrome
d. Gilbert syndrome

3. Virchow’s Node is located in the
a. Axilla
b. Mediastinum
c. Left Supraclavicular region
d. Sub-mandibular region

4. Carcinoma Prostate is characterized by the following, except
a. androgen receptors
b. osteolytic secondaries
c. perineural invasion
d. single layer of cells

5. AIDS virus belongs to
a. Lassa virus
b. Lentic virus
c. Pox virus
d. Myxo virus

6. The commonest site of Tuberculosis in the GIT is
a. Stomach
b. Jejunum
c. Ileo-cecal region
d. Colon

7. The histological type of Bronchogenic carcinoma in smokers is
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Small cell carcinoma
c. Adenocarcinoma
d. Undifferentiated carcinoma

8. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
a. Urothelial carcinoma - Transitional cells
b. Renal cell carcinoma - Blastemal cells
c. Nephroblastoma - Eosinophilic cells
d. Oncocytoma - Clear cells

9. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
a. X-linked recessive disorder – Glycogen storage disease
b. Autosomal dominant disorder - Hemophilia A
c. Autosomal recessive disorder – Sickle cell anemia
d. Metabolic disorder – Hereditary spherocytosis

10. The sequence of events in Carcinogenesis is
a. Mutation in the genome, DNA damage,
Malignant neoplasm, Expression of altered gene products.
b. Mutation in the Genome, DNA damage, Expression of the altered gene products,
Malignant neoplasm
c. DNA damage, Expression of the altered gene products, Mutation in the Genome,
Malignant neoplasm
d. DNA damage, Mutation in the genome, Expression of the altered gene products,
Malignant neoplasm.

11. In Hemoglobin degradation, the first bile pigment formed is
a. Bilirubin b. Biliverdin
c. Bile acids d. Cholic acids

12. In Hepatic Jaundice with cholestasis,
urine contains
a. high levels of conjugated bilirubin and urobilinogen
b. high leves of conjugated bilirubin and negligible urobilinogen
c. high levels of unconjugated bilirubin and urobilinogen
d. high levels of unconjugated bilirubin and negligible urobilinogen.

13. Following are the examples of Unconjugated Hyperbilirubinemia except
a. Gilbert syndrome
b. Dubin – Johnson syndrome
c. Crigler – Najjar syndrome
d. Lucey – Driscoll syndrome

14. The Chloride Shift involves
a. K+ accompanying each bicarbonate that leaves the erythrocyte
b. Carbonic acid leaving the erythrocyte
c. Bicarbonate leaving the erythrocyte in exchange for chloride
d. Protons leaving the erythrocyte for each Co2 that enters

15. A patient with PCo2 of 60 mm Hg and
Plasma Bicarbonate of 25 mEq/L, is likely to have
a. Acute metabolic acidosis
b. Acute respiratory acidosis
c. Compensated respiratory acidosis
d. Chronic metabolic acidosis

16. Most circulating T3 and T4 are bound to
a. Thyroxine binding pre-albumin
b. Thryroxine binding globulin
c. Gamma globulin
d. Thyroglobulin

17. In patients with primary hypothyroidism, which of the following laboratory tests
will be useful?
a. Estimation of T3
b. Estimation of T4
c. Estimation of TBG
d. Detection of auto – antibodies..

18. Which of the following is required for crystallization and storage of the
hormone Insulin?
a. Mn b. Mg
c. Ca d. Zn

19. Which of the following substances is present in high concentration in the urine
of patients with Pheochromocytoma?
a. Epinephrine
b. Dopamine
c. Nor – epinephrine
d. 3 – methoxy – 4 –OH Mandelic acid.

20. Secondary Hypogonadism is due to
a. Pituitary gonadotropin deficiency
b. Pituitary corticotrophin deficiency
c. Testicular deficiency
d. Ovarian deficiency

21. Precursor of Testosterone is
a. Methyl testosterone
b. Pregnenalone
c. Aldosterone
d. Cortisone

22. The principal steroid secreted by the Fetal Adrenal cortex is
a. Progesterone
b. Dehydro EPI androsterone
c. Cotocosterone
d. Pregnenalone

23. Pneumothorax causes the following,except
a. Reduced vital capacity
b. Abnormal dullness to percussion on the affected side
c. Reduction in residual volume
d. Increased resonance on percussion on affected side

24. Constriction of bronchial smooth muscle can result from the following except
a. Irritation of bronchial mucosa
b. Cold stimulus to bronchial mucosa
c. Stimulation of local beta adreno – receptors
d. A decrease in PCo2 in bronchial air

25. PR interval in electrocardiogram denotes
a. beginning of atrial depolarization to end of
ventricular depolarization
b. beginning of atrial depolarization to beginning of ventricular depolarization
c. end of atrial depolarization to beginning of ventricular depolarization
d. end of atrial depolarization to end of ventricular depolarization

26. Work output of left ventricle is
a. 5 times more that of right
b. same as that of right
c. less than that of right
d. 20 times more than that of right

27. Positive Chronotropic effect means
a. increase in heart rate
b. increase in conductivity
c. increase in force of contraction
d. increase in excitability

28. Red colour – blindness is called
a. Deuteranopia b. Protanopia
c. Protanomaly d. Deuteranomaly

29. During Deep sleep there is a fall in
a. Hand skin temperature
b. Arterial Co2
c. Blood growth hormone/cortisol ratio
d. Metabolic rate

30. In Brown – Sequard syndrome , below the level of lesion, on the same side
a. loss of fine touch
b. loss of vibration sense
c. loss of stereognosis
d. all of these

31. The following are adverse reactions of nitrates, except
a. Headache b. Postural hypotension
c. Tolerance d. Bradycardia

32. The following agents are used in Acute Myocardial Infarction, except
a. Fibrinolytics b. Aspirin
c. Anti – fibrinolytics d. Heparin

33. The appropriate drug for Cardiogenic Shock is
a. Adrenaline b. Dopamine
c. Isoprenaline d. Nor – adrenaline

34. The most suitable tetracycline for use in a patient with impaired renal function is
a. Chlortetracycline b. Democlocycline
c. Oxytetracycline d. Doxycycline

35. The drug which does not possess H2 anti- histamine receptor antagonistic
action is
a. Cimetidine b. Ranitidine
c. Nizatidine d. Loratidine

36. Which of the following hypolipidemic agents causes constipation and
bloating?
a. Colestipol b. Cholestyramine
c. Both (a) and (b) d. none of these

37. The anti- asthma drug which cannot be administered by inhalation is
a. Theophylline b. Ipratropium bromide
c. Budesonide d. Terbutaline

38. Co – trimoxazole is a combination of
a. pyrimethamine and sulfadoxine
b. Trimethoprim and Sufixozaloe
c. Trimethoprim and sulfaphenazole
d. Trimethoprim and Sufamethoxazole

39. The drug used in prophylaxis of Rheumatic fever is
a. Procaine pencillin
b. Benzyl pencillin
c. Benzathine pencillin
d. Cloxacillin

40. The drug used for extra-pyramidal reaction to Chlorpromazine is
a. Physostigmine
b. Diphenhydramine
c. Propranolol
d. Metaclopropamide

41. Which one of the following muscles emerges through the two slips of Flexor Retinaculum?
a. Flexor carpi radialis
b. Flexor pollicis longus
c. Abductor pollicis longus
d. Flexor carpi ulnaris
.
42. The sensory nerve given off by the Axillary nerve is
a. Upper lateral cutaneous nerve of arm
b. Lower lateral cutaneous nerve of arm
c. Posterior cutaneous nerve of arm
d. Posterior cutaneous nerve of forearm

43. Unlocking of the knee joint to permit the flexion is caused by which muscle
a. Vastus medialis b. Biceps femoris
c. Popliteus d. Gatrocnemius

44. The nerve that supplies the skin over the
adjacent sides of big toe and second toe
is
a. sural b. Saphenous
c. Deep peroneal d. Superificial peroneal

45. The following is a branch of the fourth part of Vertebral artery?
a. Anterior inferior cerebellar artery
b. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
c. Pontine branches
d. Basilar artery

46. Palatine tonsil is developed from
a. First pharyngeal pouch
b. Second pharyngeal pouch
c. Tubotympanic recess
d. Third pharyngeal pouch

47. One of the following muscle is not a muscle of mastication
a. Temporalis b. Masseter
c. Buccinator d. Lateral pterygoid

48. Impulse flow towards a nerve cell occurs through
a. Dendrite b. Axon
c. Neuroglia d. none of these

49. Broca’s area is localized in
a. Superior temporal gyrus
b. Parietal lobe
c. Inferior frontal gyrus
d. Para-central lobule

50. The following structures cross in front of the vertebral column , except
a. Thoracic duct
b. Accesory Hemi – azygos vein
c. H emiazygos vein
d. Left superior intercostal vein

51. The commonest lump in the breast of a young female is
a. Fibrocystic disease
b. Fibroadenoma
c. Early breast cancer
d. Phylloides tumor

52. Traction injury to epiphysis of the vertebra is called
a. Osgood Schlatters disease
b. Kohlers disease
c. Severs disease
d. Scheurmanns disease

53. Trigger thumb is
a. Stenosing Tenosynovitis of Flexor Pollicis Longus
b. S tenosing Tenosynovitis of Abd. Pol. Longus and Ext. Pol. Brevis
c. Tenosynovitis of Abductor Pollicis
d. Tenosynovitis of Lumbircals and Interossei

54. The most common infection of hand is
a. Acute paronychia
b. Chronic paronychia
c. Terminal pulp space infection
d. Web space infection

55. The common cause of Tennis Elbow is
a. Bursitis
b. Enthesopathy at the region
c. Radial head ostephyte
d. Entrapment of posterior interosseous nerve

56. Most common complication of Clavicular fracture is
a. Malunion
b. Non – union
c. Injury to brachial plexus
d. Shoulder stiffness

57. Maximum tourniquet time for upper limb is
a. ½ hour b. 1 hour
c. 1 ½ hour d. 2 hours

58. The following malignancies are common in AIDS, except
a. Kaposi sarcoma
b. Burkitts lymphoma
c. Primary CNS lymphoma
d. Ca – colon

59. Partial thickness burn is characterized by all of the following except
a. becomes full thickness later
b. rarely causes severe physiological derangement
c. heals without grafting
d. moist and blistered

60. Necrotising Fascitis is caused by all the following organisms , except
a. Coliforms
b. Staphylococci
c. Bacteriodes
d. Clostridia

61. Kehr’s sign is positive in
a. Splenic rupture
b. Rupture of distended Gall bladder
c. Hepatic injury
d. Preforation of peptic ulcer

62. Lignocaine toxicity includes
a. Convulsions
b. Asystole
c. Methemoglobinemia
d. All of these

63. Mycosis fungoides is
a. Cutaneous lymphoma
b. Deep dermal fungal infection
c. Cutaneous tuberculosis infection
d. Skin eruptions due to rubella viruses

64. Common variety of piles is
a. Internal b. External
c. Internal – External d. none of these

65. Rectal strictures are more commonly seen with
a. Carcinoma Rectum b. Syphilis
c. Chancroid d. LGV

66. The following are true about Idiopathic Hypertrophic Aortic Stenosis, except
a. Autosomal dominant with complete penetrance
b. Sudden death
c. Associated Mitral Regurgitation
d. Verapamil ameliorate symptoms

67. Shrinking Lung syndrome is seen in
a. Systemic Lupus Erythematosis
b. Systemic Sclerosis
c. Poliomyelitis
d. Tuberculosis

68. All are autosomal dominant disorders except
a. Tuberous Sclerosis b. Polyposis coli
c. Cystic fibrosis d. Myotonia dystonia

69. cANCA is most commonly associated with
a. Wegeners Granulomatosis
b. Idiopathic Cresentric GN
c. Diffuse Glomerulosclerosis
d. none of these

70. Which of the following is not associated with Tetany?
a. Chvosteks sign b. Trousseau sign
c. Cole’s sign d. Erb’s sign

71. Regularly irregular pulse occurs in
a. Sinus arrhythmias
b. II degree heart block
c. Multifocal extra-systoles
d. none of these

72. Pleural effusion protein analysis less
than 2 gms occurs in
a. Meigs syndrome b. Pulmonary infarction
c. Malignancy d. Pneumonia

73. Beta blockers are contra-indicated in hypertension management when
associated with
a. Congestive heart failure b. Renal failure
c. Liver failure d. all of these

74. Palmar Erythema is associated with
a. Thyrotoxicosis b. Pregnancy
c. Liver disorders d. All of them

75. All are true of Impotence, except
a. In India, Psychogenic causes are rare
b. Diabetes impotence is common
c. It occurs as the side effect of drug therapy of hypertension
d. Papaverine improves the condition in some.

76.The initial treatment for pre-eclampsia consists of
a. Modified bed rest b. Salt restricted diet
c. Anti-hypertensives d. Sedatives.

77. Which of the following factors is most important in stimulating fetal growth?
a. Insulin b. Growth hormone
c. Cortisol d. Human placental lactogen

78. Wound infections observed within the first 2 days after Caesarean delivery are
usually caused by
a. Streptococci b. Clostridia
c. Staphylococci d. Bacteroides.

79. Maternal convulsions have been associated with which of the following
fetal heart rate patterns?
a. Early decelerations
b. Variable decelerations
c. Prolonged decelerations
d. Accelerations

80. The Marshall – Marchetti Krantz operation is a procedure done to correct
a. Chronic retention of urine
b. stress incontinence
c. urge incontinence
d. vesico-vaginal fistula

81. The following are diseases for which extended sickness benefit is payable for
309 days under the ESI act, except
a. Hemiplegia b. Hemolytic anemia
c. Chronic renal failure d. Tuberculosis

82. The following are the complications of Measles, except
a. Orchitis b. Diarrhea
c. Pneumonia d. Otitis media

83. Presumptive treatment for Malaria is given to
a. persons who travel to malaria endemic area
b. all fever cases
c. fever cases showing typical symptoms of malaria
d. persons who are positive for malarial parasites

84. Which of the following statements about the characteristics of Tardive Dyskinesia
is true?
a. It is more common in men than women
b. It includes abnormal movements of tongue
c. It occurs more often in treatment using Clozepin than other Antipsychotics
d. It usually occurs within 3 months of beginning of drug treatment.

85. Conventional anti-psychotics can cause
a. hyper-prolactinemia
b. Gynacomastia
c. Sexual dysfunction
d. All of these

86. All of the following may be effective in treating ADHD, except
a. Methyl phenydate hydrochlorine
b. chlorpromazine
c. Phenobarbitone
d. Dextro-amphetamine sulphate

87. Oral Rehydrating Salt contains
a. 15gm/litre of Glucose
b. 20gm/litre of Glucose
c. 25gm/litre of Glucose
d. 30gm/litre of Glucose.

88. What is the commonest organism
responsible for neonatal meningitis?
a. Hemophilus influenza b. E.coli
c. Meningococci d. none of these

89. Cholera is characterized by all , except
a. Effortless vomiting
b. Painful watery (Rice water) stools
c. Hypotension
d. Acute renal failure

90. In a patient with fever for 4 days, typhoid can be confirmed by
a. Positive WIDAL b. Positive blood culture
c. Leucocytosis d. Raised ESR.

91. Great Cardiac Vein lies in
a. Anterior inter-ventricular groove
b. Posterior inter-ventricular groove
c. Anterior atrio - ventricular groove
d. Posterior atrio-ventricular groove

92. The attachments of structure at the superior surface of Anterior
intercondylar area of tibia from before backwards are
a. Anterior horn of medial meniscus, anterior cruciate ligament, anterior horn of lateral
meniscus.
b. anterior horn of lateral meniscus, , anterior cruciate ligament, Anterior horn of
medial meniscus.
c. anterior cruciate ligament, Anterior horn of medial meniscus, anterior horn of lateral
meniscus.
d. anterior cruciate ligament, anterior horn of lateral meniscus, Anterior horn of medial
meniscus.

93. All of the following structures pass deep in the flexor retinaculum of hand, except
a. Tendons of flexor digitorum superficialis
b. Tendons of Flexor digitorum profundus
c. Tendon of Flexor pollcis longus
d. Tendon of the Flexor carpi ulnaris.

94. Rotator cuff is formed by the tendons of
a. Supraspinatus – Rhomboideus minor – Subscapularis – Infraspinatus
b. Supraspinatus – Infraspinatus – Teres major – Teres minor
c. Supraspinatus – Infraspinatus – Teres minor – Subscapularis
d. Infraspinatus – Subscapularis – Teres minor – Pectoralis minor.

95. Wrist drop is the result of injury to
a. Median nerve
b. Ulnar nerve
c. Musculo-cutaneous nerve
d. Radial nerve

96. Both dermal and epidermal Melanoblasts are formed from
a. General body ectoderm
b. Ectodermal placode
c. Neural plate
d. Neural crest

97. Which one of the following diseases is not X- linked recessive?
a. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
b. Christmas disease
c. Hemophilia
d. Marfans syndrome
98. The trigone of the urinary bladder is developed from
a. Vesicourethral canal
b. Mesonephric duct
c. Para-mesonephric duct
d. Allantoic diverticulum.

99. Which of the following is correctly matched?
a. Duodenum – Large intestine
b. Jejunum – Valve of Kerkring
c. Ileum – Brunners Gland
d. Appendix – Peyers patch.

100. The structure that lies anterior to the
 rectus abdominis above the costal margin is
a. Costal cartilages
b. Internal oblique aponeurosis
c. Transvers abdominis aponeurosis
d. External oblique aponeurosis.