Friday, 1 April 2011

TNPSC 2005 – QUESTION PAPER PART 2


101. In a surgical patient which of the following preoperative preparation effectively reduces infection rate?
a. Antiseptic bathing of the patients body
b. Shorter period of preoperative hospital stay.
c. Preoperative shaving five minutes before surgery
d. Antiseptic scrubbing of the surgeons hands.

102. The safe method of administering general anesthesia is through
a. Tracheostomy tube
b. Non- cuffed endotracheal tube
c. Cuffed endotracheal tube
d. Endobronchial tube.

103. The initial fluid replacement in a case of burns is dependent upon
a. hematocrit value
b. blood pressure
c. surface area involved
d. the depth of the burns

104. Minimum amount of GI bleed to cause Melena is
a. 30ml b. 60 ml
c. 120 ml d. 10 ml

105. Most malignant type of Ca stomach is
a. Proliferative growth
b. Ulcerative growth
c. Linitis plastica
d. Superficial spreading type

106. Emphysematous Cholecystitis occurs commonly in
a. Sarcoidosis
b. Systemic Lupus Erythematosis
c. Diabetes mellitus
d. Gas gangrene

107. Common site involved in Toxic Megacolon is
a. Ascending colon
b. Descending colon
c. Transverse colon
d. Sigmoido-rectal area.

108. Operation of choice for Resectable Cancer Rectum 4 cms above the anal verge is
a. Anterior resection
b. abdomino – perineal resection
c. resection and anastomosis
d. Davis procedure

109. Barret’s esophagus are found in
a. Reflux esophagitis
b. Following burns
c. Following head injury
d. In Typhoid, T.B, and amebiasis

110. Gastric ulcer occurs most commonly at
a. Fundus b. Body
c. Pyloric antrum d. Greater curvature

111. Couvelaire uterus is seen in
a. Placenta previa b. Vasa previa
c. Abruptio placenta d. all of these

112. Maternal syphilis is associated with abortion at
a. Early first trimester b. Second trimester
c. IUD d. None of these

113. Physiological edema of pregnancy is
best treated with the following
a. crepe bandage b. Diuretics
c. Rest d. Salt restricted diet

114. Amniocentesis is indicated in all,
except
a. alpha fetoprotein study b. breech
c. chromosomal study d. Fetla maturity

115. Neutrophil examination can indicate
sex from
a. number of lobes
b. presence of drumstick
c. nature of granules
d. size of cell

116. Common cause for Decubitus ulcer in prolapse uterus is
a. Infection b. Injury
c. Conjestion d. Malignancy

117. Myomectomy is done in a patient to conserve
a. Reproductive function
b. Menstrual function
c. Feminity
d. none of these

118. Condom is used in the following, except
a. Following vasectomy
b. Treatment of Vasectomy
c. immunological infertility
d. Asherman syndrome


119. Ovulation inducing drugs include the following except
a. Clomiphene citrate
b. Human menopausal gonadotropin
c. Follicle stimulating hormone
d. Progesterone

120. Diagnosis of Vesicular mole can be made confidently by
a. clinical examination b. X ray
c. HCG levels d. Ultrasound

121. Which of the following anti-epileptic drugs is used as alternative to Lithium in Mania and bipolar disorder?
a. Phenytoin b. Ethosuximide
c. Carbamazepine d. Vigabatrin

122. Long term thiazide therapy causes hyperglycemia by
a. reducing insulin release
b. interfering with glucose utilization in tissues
c. increasing sympathetic activity
d. increasing corticosteroid secretion.

123. Drug of choice for radical cure of P.vivax malaria is
a. Chloroquine b. Quinine
c. Primaquine d. Halofantrine

124. The rationale of giving beta blockers in angina is that they
a. dilate coronary arteries
b. decrease the perload
c. decrease the work of the heart
d. increase the O2 consumption

125. Effects of the Glucocorticoids include all of the following except
a. Altered fat deposition
b. Increased blood glucose
c. increased skin protein systhesis
d. Inhibition of Leukotriene synthesis

126. The side effect which limits the use of oral iron therapy is
a.epigastric pain b. black stool
c. staining of teeth d. metallic taste

127. The agent that is effective against Helicobacter pylori in peptic ulcer is
a. Bismuth b. Pirenzepine
c. Aluminium hydroxide d. amoxicillin

128. The anti-neoplastic drug used in Psoriasis is
a. Mitotane b. Mechlorethamine
c. Melphalan d. Methotrexate

129. Thyrotoxicosis can be treated with
a. Glucocorticoids b. Methimazole
c. Propyl thiouracil d. All of these

130. The anti-emetic drug with least extrapyramidal side effect is
a. Metoclopropamide b. Chlorpromazine
c. Prochlorperazine d. Domperidone

131. The main type of lipids found in tissues in starving individual in the end of first week of fasting is
a. Phospholipids b. Triacylglycerol
c. Cholesterol d. Cholesterol esters.

132. Which of the following lipoproteins would contribute to a measurement of
plasma cholesterol in a normal individual following a 12 hour fast?
a. Chylomicrons b. VLDL
c. Both VLDL & LDL d. LDL

133. Ketosis is ascribed in part to
a. a slowdown in fat metabolism
b. an over-production of acetyl CoA
c. an under production of acetyl CoA.
d. an over-production of glucose

134. Respiratory distress syndrome in premature infants is due to the absence of ….. in the lung.
a. Dipalmitoyl lecithin
b. Cephalin
c. Phosphatidyl inositol
d. Phosphatidyl ethanolamine

135. The free fatty acids of blood are
a. metabolically inert
b. mainly bound to beta lipoprotein
c. stored in the fat deposits
d. mainly bound to serum albumin

136. The normal route of Calcium excretion is
a. kidney and liver
b. kidney and intestine
c. kidney, intestine and pancreas
d. kidney, liver and pancreas.

137. A rise in blood calcium may indicate
a. Paget’s disease b. vitamin D deficiency
c. Cushing’s disease d. Hypervitaminosis D

138. Hypermagnesemisa is seen in
a. Hyperthyroidism b. Renal failure
c. Chronic infection d. Malabsorption

139. Specific gravity of the normal urine is
a. 1.010 – 1.100 b. 1.040 – 1.100
c. 1.150 – 1.250 d. 1.010 – 1.025

140. Prothrombin time in obstructive jaundice
a. is normal
b. decreases
c. becomes normal after Vitamin K injection
d. increases after Vitamin K injection

141. Hashimotos disease is
a. autoimmune disease of thyroid
b. excessive secretion of Adrenal cortex
c. disorder of motor system of brain
d. none of these

142. Plasma cortisol level is maximal around
a. 8-9 pm b. 2-3 pm
c. 8am d. midnight

143. Cushing syndrome is caused by
a. hyposecretion of growth hormone
b. hyposecretion of thyroxine
c. hypersecretion of cortisol
d. hypersecretion of pituitary hormones.

144. Identify the wrong statement about cortisol:
a. Secretion increased following injury
b. favours protein synthesis
c. enhances effects of antigen – antibody reactions
d. tends to lower blood pressure.

145. Osmotic diuresis effect usually occurs in the
a. glomerulus b. Distal tubule
c. Collecting duct d. Proximal tube

146. The following statements are true for Gastrin except in
a. stimulates secretion of Hcl and Pepsinogen
b. decreases gastric antral mobility
c. weakly stimulates gall bladder contraction
d. increases resting pressure of lower esophageal sphincter.

147. Commonest carcinoma in female is of
a. uterus b. cervix
c. breast d. ovary

148. A cholagogue
a. increases the rate of secretion of bile
b. increases the contraction of gall bladder
c. increases the storage of bile in G.B.
d. none of these

149. Blood group antigen is
a. carried by sex chromosomes
b. attached to plasma proteins
c. attached to hemoglobin molecule
d. found in saliva

150. All of the following cells arises from a common committed stem cells except
a. Red blood cells b. Platelets
c. Granulocytes d. Lymphocytes

151. Hypochromic microcytic RBCs are a eature of anemia due to
a. Iron deficiency b. B12 deficiency
c. Folate deficiency d. All of these

152. Myelofibrosis is diagnosed by
a. Bone marrow aspiration
b. Peripheral smear
c. Trephine biopsy
d. Bone marrow imprint.

153. The commonest type of leukemia encountered in children is
a. A.L.L1 type b. C.L.L
c. C.M.L juvenile type d. C.M.M.L

154. Neutrophilia is a common manifestation in the following conditions except
a. Pyogenic infection
b. Typhoid fever
c. Myocardial infarction
d. Diabetic ketoacidosis

155. Among the following, the condition which presents with diminished reticulocyte count is
a. Aplastic anemia
b. Bloodless anemia
c. Hemolytic anemia
d. Lueco-erythroblastic reaction

156. Pigments derived from hemoglobin are all,. Except
a. Bilirubin b. Hematin
c. Lipofuchsin d. Hemosiderin

157. The presence and rapid multiplication of pathogenic bacteria in blood is
a. Septicemia b. toxemia
c. Bacteremia d. all of these

158. The following are sites of Metastatic Calcification, except
a. alveoli b. blood vessels
c. lymph nodes d. renal tubules

159. Which of the following transmits the HIV most efficiently?
a. Semen b. Blood
c. Saliva d. Breast milk

160. The aetiologic agent implicated in the production of Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is
a. Ebstein – Barr virus
b. Oral Candidiasis
c. Herpes simplex Type II
d. Rhinosporidium seeberi.

161. At the time of curettage for suspected endometrial carcinoma, the uterus is
perforated with a sound. The treatment would be
a. Conservative
b. Immediate laparatomy and hysterectomy
c. Laparoscopy and closure of perforation
d. Immediate chemotherapy

162. Hysterosalpingogram is useful in the diagnosis of all the following
conditions, except
a. Cervical incompetence
b. Tuberculous endometritis
c. Ashermans syndrome
d. Scar integrity in previous LSLs.

163. The LH surge precedes ovulation by
a. 12 hours b. 24-36 hours
c. 48 hours d. 60-72 hours

164. Post – Caesarean pregnancy should be
a. delivered by repeat Caesarean section
b. should have a vaginal delivery
c. an institutional delivery
d. none of these

165. Primi gravida is seen in the first trimester with primary pulmonary
hypertension. You will advise
a. Medical termination of pregnancy
b. Hospitalization
c. Outpatient treatment
d. angiography.

166. In a twin pregnancy Caesarean section
is indicated in
a. Abruptio placentae
b. Acute polyhydramnios
c. When first fetus presens as transverse lie
d. all of these

167. If a woman C/O. Bleeding per vaginum with history of two months
amenorrhea. One should think of
a. Threatened abortion
b. Ectopic pregnancy
c. Metropathia hemorrhagica
d. All of these

168. Red degeneration of Fibroid is associated with
a. Pregnancy
b. Aseptic infarction
c. Thrombosis
d. Leukocytosis

169. Which of the following is not an indication for Classical Caesarean?
a. Carcinoma cervix
b. Cervical fibroid
c. Vesicovaginal fistula repaired previously
d. Classical Caesarean previously

170. Danazol is useful in
a. Amennorhea
b. Infertility
c. endometriosis
d. Fibroadenoma breast

171. All are true of Parathion poisoning except
a. decrease in true cholinesterase level
b. respiratory depression common
c. pupil constricted
d. opiates ideal for convulsions

172. Complications of Mitral Stenosis include all , except
a. acute left ventricular failure
b. Pulmonary apoplexy
c. Pneumonia
d. Infective endocarditis.

173. In India, for Rheumatic fever all are present, except
a. Syndenhams Chorea
b. Erythema marginatum
c. arthralgia
d. Raised C reactive protein.

174. In Atrial fibrillation, all are true except
a. varying intensity of first heart sound
b. precipitation or aggravation of existing CCF
c. Pulse deficit rarely
d. embolic manifestations.

175. All are features of Pulmonary Hypertesnion, except
a. Early diastolic murmur
b. ejection click
c. Canon vein in jugulars
d. Prominent palpable pulmonary artery pulsations over chest.

176. Coarctation of aorta is associated with all, except
a. Hypertension in lower limbs
b. Turners syndrome
c. Bicuspid aortic valves
d. Polycystic kidney.

177. All are true of methyl alcohol poisoning, except
a. occurs in groups of persons
b. toxic effects due to acetaldehyde
c. causes blurring of vision
d. treatment is with ethyl alcohol.

178. streptokinase therapy is contra – indicated in all, except
a. allergic reaction
b. second dose within six months
c. recent injury
d. age above 50 years.

179. Pulmonary hypertension occurs in all , except
a. Ostium secundum septal effect
b. Patent ductus arteriosus
c. Fallot’s tetralogy
d. Mitral incompetence

180. All are true of opening snap in Mitral Stenosis, except
a. it is absent when valve is calcified
b. occurs before II sound
c. heard all over precordium
d. ringing quality.

181. Boerhoove’s syndrome is
a. partial thickness rupture of esophagus
b. full thickness rupture of esophagus
c. Rupture of esophageal varices
d. Rupture of gastro – esophageal junction.

182. Common Goitre in Iodine Deficiency is
a. Simple colloid b. Single nodule
c. Multiple Nodule d. Malignant nodule.

183. Plasma Cortisol levels show Diurnal
variation with highest values
a. in the morning b. at bed time
c. in the evening d. at midnight

184. Which of the following Naevi becomes malignant?
a. Blue Naevus
b. Hairy Naevus
c. Junctional Naevus
d. Intradermal Naevus

185. Metabolic acidosis occurs in
a. Diabetes b. Starvation
c. Renal insufficiency d. all of these

186. Amaurosis fugax is
a. Hemiplegia caused by embolus in middle cerebral artery
b. Fleeting blindness due to embolus in central retinal artery
c. Gangrene of intestines due to thrombosis of mesenteric artery
d. Splenic infarction due to throbosis of splenic artery.

187. Step walls are associated with the transmission of
a. Amebiasis b. Ascariasis
c. Ancylostomiasis d. Dracunculosis

188. The toxic agent in Epidemic Dropsy is
a. BOAA b. Ergot alkaloids
c. Sanginarine d. None of these

189. Evolution of Rash in a chicken pox case passes through the following four
stages. Identify the correct order in which they appear.
a. Macule, Papule, Scab, Vesicle.
b. Papule, Macule, Vesicle, Scab.
c. Vesicle, Papule, Macule, Scab.
d. Macule, Papule, Vesicle, Scab.

190. The Odds ratio is used as measure of association in a
a. Retrospective Cohort Study
b. Cohort Study
c. Prospective Cohort Study
d. Case Control Study

191. Causes of Hypergonadotrophic hypogonadism are following, except
a. Klinefelters syndrome
b. Turners syndrome
c. Cushing syndrome
d. Leprosy.

192. Following are true about Psoriasis, except
a. Well defined erythematous plaques
b. Parakeratosis
c. Not associated with HLA CW6
d. Exacerbated by Propranolol.

193. Clinical features of raised Intracranial pressure include all, except
a. Tachycardia b. Vomitting
c. Personality changes d. 6th Nerve palsy

194. Pulsus Paradox occurs in
a. Cardiac tamponade
b. Bronchial Asthma
c. Pneumo-thorax
d. all of these

195. Turners syndrome is associated with all the following, except
a. Karyotype of 45 XO
b. Genital hypoplasia
c. Blind vagina
d. Streak ovaries

196. The condition of waxy flexibility is encountered during examination of
patients with
a. Alcoholic Hallucinosis b. Mania
c. Catatonic Schizophrenia
d. Alzheimers disease

197. In the following, mention the drug which is not used in Erythematous
Nodosum Leprosum.
a. Steroids b. Chlorpromazine
c. Thalidomide d. Adriamycin

198. The key mediator in Scar formation are following, except
a. T.F.G beta b. FGF
c. Macrophages d. Polymorphs

199. In renal transplantation, the dreaded cause for graft loss is
a. Acute rejection
b. Vascular thrombosis of artery.
c. Vascular thrombosis of vein
d. Ansatomatic dehiscence 

200.Many pulses are obtained from plants of the family
A. Euphorbiaceae
B. Fabaceae
C. Asteraceae
D. Musaceae

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